PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Practice Test)

The American Association of Colleges of Pharmacy administers the Pharmacy College Admissions Test.

Many US pharmacy colleges require PCAT from applicants in order to select the most qualified prospective students.

The Pharmacy College Admissions Test is computer-based and consists of multiple-choice questions divided up into eight categories: biology, chemistry, quantitative reasoning, critical reading, and writing.

We offer you 140 practice questions for the PCAT in the first four categories!

PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Practice Test)

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Question 1

Plantaris is an elongated, thin muscle behind the knee and it...

A	unlocks the knees when walking
B	assists in knee flexion
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 1 Explanation:

Plantaris is an elongated, thin muscle behind the knee and it unlocks the knees when walking and assists in knee flexion.

Question 2

Please identify which of the following can be an outcome of anxiety.

A	Hard or thin stools
B	Hypertension
C	Adrenal insufficiency
D	A and B

Question 2 Explanation:

Anxiety can cause hard or thin stools and high blood pressure, among others.

Question 3

Which of the following has the most significant direct impact on health and wellbeing?

A	Career choice
B	Nutrition habits
C	Place of residence
D	None of the above

Question 3 Explanation:

Nutrition has a significant direct impact on health and wellbeing.

Question 4

The elongated muscle found in the neck that helps head movement is called...

A	BJM
B	SCM
C	APM
D	None of the above

Question 4 Explanation:

The elongated muscle found in the neck that helps head movement is called sternocleidomastoid (SCM). BJM stands for Bones, Joints and Muscles. APM stands for Anterior Papillary Muscle

Question 5

The fibres of the rectus abdominis muscle are positioned...

A	horizontally.
B	vertically.
C	segmentally.
D	None of the above

Question 5 Explanation:

The fibres of the rectus abdominis muscle are positioned vertically.

Question 6

How many phalanges are there on both human feet?

A	10
B	14
C	28
D	None of the above

Question 6 Explanation:

Both human feet have a total of 28 phalanges.

Question 7

Identify which of the following is an element of the hamstrings.

A	Biceps femoris
B	Semimembranosus
C	Semitendinosus muscle
D	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

The biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus muscles are all elements of the hamstring.

Question 8

Which of the following can be a factor in the health of the spine and the nervous system.

A	A good posture
B	A good memory
C	A good physique
D	None of the above

Question 8 Explanation:

A good posture is a factor in the health of the spine and the nervous system.

Question 9

When a the angle of a joint increases and decreases this is called .... and .... respectively.

A	rotation, flexion
B	extension, flexion
C	flexion, compression
D	None of the above

Question 9 Explanation:

When a the angle of a joint increases and decreases this is called extension and flexion respectively.

Question 10

What is the purpose of a concentric muscle contraction?

A	shortens a muscle
B	lengthens a muscle
C	rotates a muscle
D	None of the above

Question 10 Explanation:

A concentric muscle contraction is a movement that shortens a muscle.

Question 11

Which muscles are responsible for foot eversion?

A	The peroneus longus muscles
B	The Fibularis muscles
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 11 Explanation:

The Fibularis muscles, including the peroneus longus, the peroneus brevis and the peroneus tertius are responsible for the movement known as foot eversion.

Question 12

Please identify what is the longest muscle in the body called.

A	The sartorius
B	The gluteus maximus
C	The heart muscle
D	None of the above

Question 12 Explanation:

The sartorius is the longest muscle in the body, while the gluteus maximus is the largest.

Question 13

Which of the following denotes a gland that is present in children but disappears as we grow? (Hint: it is shaped as a pinecone)

A	The tonsils
B	The pineal gland
C	The thymus
D	None of the above

Question 13 Explanation:

The pineal gland , shaped as a pinecone, is present in children but disappears as we age.

Question 14

Which system is responsible for maintaining body balance?

A	The feet
B	The nervous system
C	The lymphatic system
D	The vestibular system

Question 14 Explanation:

The vestibular system is responsible for maintaining body balance.

Question 15

Please identify what is the jugular veins function?

A	The jugular veins bring deoxygenated blood coming from the lower body circulation back into heart
B	The jugular veins bring deoxygenated blood coming from the head circulation back into heart
C	None of the above

Question 15 Explanation:

The jugular veins bring deoxygenated blood coming from the head circulation back into heart.

Question 16

Please identify the system that contains the largest organ of the human body.

A	The circulatory system
B	The endocrine system
C	The integumentary system
D	Noen of the above

Question 16 Explanation:

The integumentary system contains the skin, the largest organ in the human body.

Question 17

The autonomic nervous system consists of which of the following parts?

A	The sympathetic and empathetic nervous systems
B	The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
C	The sympathetic and pre-sympathetic nervous systems
D	None of the above

Question 17 Explanation:

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems comprise the autonomic nervous system.

Question 18

Calcaneus is the technical term for...

A	the elbow
B	the kneecap
C	the calcaneal tendon
D	the heel bone

Question 18 Explanation:

Calcaneus is the technical term for the heel bone.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is correct about the function of the duodenum?

A	In the duodenum, food combines with gallbladder bile
B	In the duodenum, food combines with pancreatic juices
C	In the duodenum, food is broken down
D	All of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

All of the above statements are correct about the duodenum, part of the small intestine.

Question 20

The bladder is responsible for storing...

A	blood.
B	lymph.
C	urine.
D	hormones.

Question 20 Explanation:

The bladder is responsible for storing urine.

Question 21

What vessels bring blood from the heart to body organs and tissues?

A	The arteries
B	The veins
C	The capillaries

Question 21 Explanation:

The arterial blood vessels bring blood from the heart to body organs and tissues.

Question 22

Which organ in the body produces insulin?

A	In the pancreas
B	In the small intestine
C	In the pituitary gland
D	None of the above

Question 22 Explanation:

Insulin is produced in the pancreas and secreted into the blood system.

Question 23

Identify the system that is involved in the following functions, among others: control of involuntary movement, mobility and posture.

A	The muscular system
B	The endocrine system
C	The digestive system

Question 23 Explanation:

The muscular system is involved in the control of involuntary movement, mobility and posture, among a range of other functions.

Question 24

The kidney ... are responsible for selecting waste from the blood into the kidney, the .... are responsible for collecting the urine from the kidneys into the bladder, and the .... is responsible for emptying the bladder of urine, passing it out of the body.

A	white blood cells, nephrons, ureters
B	nephrons, ureters, urethra
C	nephrons, urethra, ureters
D	None of the above

Question 24 Explanation:

The kidney nephrons are responsible for selecting waste from the blood into the kidney, the ureters are responsible for collecting the urine from the kidneys into the bladder, and the urethra is responsible for emptying the bladder of urine, passing it out of the body.

Question 25

In case x, y, and z are all positive integers and the following is true: x?y and y>z. Please identify which of the following could refer x, y, and z respectively.

A	3, 2, 2
B	?3, ?2, ?3
C	2, 3, 1
D	None of the above

Question 26

Please identify in which of the following the doubling method of informal counting is used.

A	2+2+1+1+1=7
B	(1+1+1+ 1) + (1+1+1) = 7
C	3+4 = (3+3) +1 = 7
D	None of the above

Question 26 Explanation:

The doubling method of informal counting is used in calculating 3+4 = (3+3) +1 = 7

Question 27

Please identify the prime number on the list.

A	79
B	75
C	50
D	None of the above

Question 27 Explanation:

79 is a prime number.

Question 28

What do you get when rounding 252.323 to the nearest hundredth?

A	252.33
B	252.32
C	252.31
D	None of the above

Question 28 Explanation:

The answer is 252.32

Question 29

3*(14*7)=(3*14)*7 This equation exemplifies...

A	The additive inverse property
B	The distributive property
C	The dissociative property
D	None of the above

Question 29 Explanation:

This equation exemplifies the dissociative property.

Question 30

What do you get when rounding 2179.22457 to the nearest thousandths place?

A	2179.225
B	2179.224
C	2179
D	None of the above

Question 30 Explanation:

The answer is 2179.225.

Question 31

You are making a salad that requires using 4 cucumbers for every avocado, 2 tomatoes for every cucumber, and 1 pepper for every avocado. If you have a salad in which you used 8 peppers, how many whole pieces of food have you used in this salad according to the recipe?

A	92
B	112
C	132
D	None of the above.

Question 31 Explanation:

There will be 8 peppers, 8 avocados, 32 cucumbers, and 64 tomatoes, 112 in total.

Question 32

Please identify which of the following is the correct measurement to use for the volume of water in a basin.

A	Cups
B	Gallons
C	Pounds
D	None of the above

Question 32 Explanation:

Gallons is the correct measurement to use for the volume of water in a basin.

Question 33

What kind of pattern can be identified in the following set of numbers: 2, 8, 14, 20, 26, 32

A	The set starts with 2 and ends with 32
B	The set starts with 2 and increases by 6 every time
C	The set starts with 2 and increases by 4 every time
D	There is no pattern

Question 33 Explanation:

The set starts with 2 and increases by 6 every time.

Question 34

Converted into percentages, two-fourths will be...

A	55%
B	66.67%
C	70%
D	None of the above

Question 34 Explanation:

Converted into percentages, two-thirds will be 66.67%.

Question 35

There are four apples on a table. In how many different ways can these apples be ordered?

A	12
B	18
C	24
D	None of the above

Question 35 Explanation:

These apples be ordered in 24 different ways.

Question 36

What would be 6²?

A	12
B	36
C	1296
D	None of the above

Question 36 Explanation:

6² equals 36.

Question 37

What would be 2½ written as a simple fraction in lowest terms?

A	7/3
B	5/2
C	2.5
D	None of the above

Question 37 Explanation:

2½ written as a simple fraction in lowest terms equals 5/2.

Question 38

A rectangle with dimensions 4 cm by 6 cm has a perimeter of...

A	10 cm
B	20 cm
C	24 cm
D	None of the above

Question 38 Explanation:

A rectangle with dimensions 4 cm by 6 cm has a perimeter of 20 cm.

Question 39

Calculate the area of a circle with a radius of 5 cm.

A	74.54 cm²
B	78.54 cm²
C	94.54 cm²
D	None of the above

Question 39 Explanation:

A circle with a radius of 5 cm has area of 78.54 cm².

Question 40

The triangle type that has one angle of 90 degrees is called...

A	right
B	obtuse
C	scalene
D	None of the above

Question 40 Explanation:

The triangle type that has one angle of 90 degrees is called a right triangle.

Question 41

Bring the fraction 6/8 to its simplest form

A	2/8
B	3/4
C	1/2
D	None of the above

Question 41 Explanation:

6/8 written in its simplest form is 3/4.

Question 42

Please state whether 40÷8 is greater than, equal to or less than 42÷6?

A	greater than
B	equal to
C	less than
D	None of the above.

Question 42 Explanation:

40÷8 is less than 42÷6.

Question 43

If you have 2 quarts of jam and give one half of a quart to your friend, how many pints of jam are you left with?

A	3
B	4
C	3.5
D	None of the above

Question 43 Explanation:

You are left with. One quart has two pints.

Question 44

A:{6, 12, 14} B:{4, 16}. Please identify the union of these two sets.

A	{2, 8, 10, 16}
B	{4, 6, 12, 14, 16}
C	{24, 28, 14}
D	None of the above

Question 44 Explanation:

The union of these two sets is {4, 6, 12, 14, 16}.

Question 45

Noble gases primarily contain...

A	highly reactive elements.
B	non-reactive elements.
C	moderately reactive elements.

Question 45 Explanation:

Noble gases primarily contain non-reactive elements.

Question 46

A substance has a half-life of 6 hours. A patient has ingested 32 grams of the substance. How many grams of it still remain in the patient's metabolism after 18 hours?

A	4 gr
B	6 gr
C	8 gr
D	None of the above

Question 46 Explanation:

4 grams of the substance will still be present in the patient's metabolism after 18 hours.

Question 47

CH3COOH is...

A	a strong acid
B	a strong base
C	a weak acid
D	a weak base

Question 47 Explanation:

CH3COOH is an example of a weak acid.

Question 48

Find the oxidation state of KClO4.

A	7
B	0
C	-7
D	None of the above

Question 48 Explanation:

KClO4 is potassium perchlorate and its oxidation state is minus 7.

Question 49

A sample of a radioactive element has a mass of 36 gr. In 15 hours, this sample has decayed to a mass of 5 gr. How long is its half-life?

A	2.5 hours
B	5 hours
C	7.5 hours
D	None of the above

Question 49 Explanation:

The half-life of this substance is 5 hours.

Question 50

Please identify which of the following is a double-bond compound?

A	C2H4
B	C4H10
C	CH
D	None of the above

Question 50 Explanation:

Out of the given compounds, ethylene, with the formula C2H4 contains a double bond.

Question 51

Na+ belongs to a class of compounds that produce a solution conductive of electrically when dissolved in water. This class is called...

A	Ethers
B	Electrolytes
C	Amines
D	Alkenes

Question 51 Explanation:

his class is called electrolytes.

Question 52

The “electron sea” model of bonding can be found in...

A	Sodium hydroxide
B	Zinc
C	Nitrogen
D	None of the above

Question 52 Explanation:

The “electron sea” model of bonding can be found in metals, such as zinc.

Question 53

When placed in water, one of these metals reacts with an explosion. This is...

A	Rhodium
B	Sodium
C	Halogen
D	None of the above

Question 53 Explanation:

Sodium is a metal that reacts with water by causing an explosion.

Question 54

C2H6 is an example of ... straight-chain alkane.

A	saturated
B	unsaturated
C	branched
D	None of the above

Question 54 Explanation:

C2H6 is an example of saturated straight-chain alkane.

Question 55

3 moles of water receives 80 gr of a certain substance. Calculate what would be this substance's mole fraction in the solution?

A	.30
B	.40
C	.50
D	None of the above

Question 55 Explanation:

The mole fraction of this substance in the solution would be .40.

Question 56

Mg3(PO4)2 is the formula for which of the following compounds?

A	Magnesium phosphate
B	Magnesium polonide
C	Trimagnesium phosphate
D	None of the above

Question 56 Explanation:

Mg3(PO4)2 is the formula for magnesium phosphate.

Question 57

Malleability is a physical property of ... and it refers to...

A	gasses, the ability of turning into liquid state.
B	metals, the ability to be hammered or rolled without breaking.
C	solid substances, the ability to stretch
D	None of the above

Question 57 Explanation:

Malleability is a property of metals and it refers to the ability to be hammered or rolled without breaking.

Question 58

Na2O belongs to the class of...

A	epoxides
B	metallic oxides
C	carboximidic acids
D	None of the above

Question 58 Explanation:

Na2O belongs to the class of metallic oxides.

Question 59

By heating one solution to add a greater amount of the solute results in another solution called...

A	Homeopathic
B	Supersaturated
C	Oversaturated
D	None of the above

Question 59 Explanation:

By heating one solution to add a greater amount of the solute results in another solution called supersaturated.

Question 60

Hydrobromic acid is marked with the formula...

A	HBr
B	H2Br
C	H2Br4
D	None of the above

Question 60 Explanation:

Hydrobromic acid is marked with the formula HBr.

Question 61

You have administered 14gr of a substance with a 3-hour half-life. Please identify the amount of the substance still present in the patient's metabolism after 6 hours.

A	2.5gr
B	3gr
C	3.5gr

Question 61 Explanation:

The amount still present after 6 hours would be 3.5gr.

Question 62

What is the mean for 208, 411, 82, 868, 120, and 222?

A	216
B	318.5
C	320.5
D	None of the above

Question 62 Explanation:

The mean for 208, 411, 82, 868, 120, and 222 is the same as the average and equals 318.5.

Question 63

Please identify what does sample stands for in terms of a survey.

A	The sum of the valid survey responses
B	The subset of a larger population that takes part in the survey
C	The set of questions asked of participants in the survey
D	None of the above

Question 63 Explanation:

The subset of a larger population that takes part in the survey is called a sample.

Question 64

In the compound NaCl, the type of bonding is...

A	ionic.
B	double.
C	covalent.
D	Noen of the above

Question 64 Explanation:

In the compound NaCl, the type of bonding is ionic.

Question 65

When we say that a certain element is easily oxidized, it means that this element...

A	can easily corrode.
B	can easily lose one or more electrons.
C	can easily react with metals.
D	None of the above

Question 65 Explanation:

When we say that a certain element is easily oxidized, it means that this element can easily lose one or more electrons.

Question 66

A group of students consists of 127 Americans, 92 Canadians, 108 Australians, 77 Mexicans, and 13 Germans. If a professor chooses one student from this group randomly, what is the probability that he or she will be an American?

A	10%
B	13%
C	25%
D	30%

Question 66 Explanation:

The probability that a randomly picked student from this group will be an American is 30%.

Question 67

Please select which of the following is the definition of a lurking variable.

A	A variable that is not included in the explanation, but it affects the interpretation of the results.
B	A variable whose value is dependent on another variable.
C	A variable that has more than two categories.

Question 67 Explanation:

A lurking variable is a variable that is not included in the explanation, but it affects the interpretation of the results.

Question 68

A data set is divided into four approximately equal parts that are called...

A	quarters.
B	quadrants.
C	quartiles.
D	None of the above

Question 68 Explanation:

A data set is divided into four approximately equal parts that are called quartiles.

Question 69

What kind of a graph does data concentrated asymmetrically into the left end of the data range have?

A	A beta distribution graph
B	A histogram
C	A skewed graph

Question 69 Explanation:

Data concentrated asymmetrically into either end of the data range has a skewed graph. It can be left-skewed or right-skewed.

Question 70

A doctor says that there is a “one in one thousand chance” of contracting a certain disease in a population of 500,000. What is the probability that someone contracts the disease in a family of three, all other factors equal?

A	0.03%
B	0.30%
C	0.33%
D	None of the above

Question 70 Explanation:

In this case, there is a 0.30% chance for that event.

Question 71

What is the median for the following data set: 76, 234, 267, 120, 96, 331, 146, 267?

A	267
B	146
C	331
D	None of the above.

Question 71 Explanation:

The median for 76, 234, 267, 120, 96, 331, 146, 267 is 190. In case of an even number of elements in a set, the median is calculated by finding the average of the two middle values.

Question 72

A number that greatly differs from the rest in a particular data set is called...

A	a mode.
B	an outlier.
C	a median.
D	None of the above

Question 72 Explanation:

A number that greatly differs from the rest in a particular data set is called an outlier.

Question 73

What is the median for the following data set: 92, 452, 63, 145, 98, 569, 41, 845, 12?

A	98
B	92
C	63
D	145

Question 73 Explanation:

The median for 92, 452, 63, 145, 98, 569, 41, 845, 12 is 98.

Question 74

Your exam result says that you have gotten a score with a percentile rank of 95th. How can this be said otherwise?

A	You have a score of 95 points out of 100.
B	You have a score of 95%.
C	You have a score that is equal to or greater than the score of 95% of other test-takers.
D	A and B

Question 74 Explanation:

Getting a score with a percentile rank of 95th, means that you have a score that is equal to or greater than the score of 95% of other test-takers.

Question 75

The result values in an experiment are 43, 42, 39, 42, 41, and 49. What would the last value likely be?

A	A standard deviation
B	A mode
C	An outlier
D	None of the above

Question 75 Explanation:

The last value in this data set is an outlier.

Question 76

Identify the mode in this data set: 89, 756, 42, 36, 89, 569, 423, 42, 86, 532, 84, 852, 42, 78.

A	423
B	42
C	89
D	852

Question 76 Explanation:

The mode in this data set is 42, because it appears the most number of times.

Question 77

Identify the mean in this data set: 0.2, 1.2, 3, 0.2, 1.2, 2, 2.5, 1.5, 1

A	1.42
B	1.5
C	1
D	None of the above

Question 77 Explanation:

The mean for this data set is 1.42.

Question 78

Identify the median in this data set: 4.3, 5.3, 6.2, 1, 1.2, 0, 4.8, 2

A	3.15
B	0
C	1.2
D	None of the above

Question 78 Explanation:

The median for this data set is 3.15.

Question 79

Identify the mode in this data set: 56%, 81%, 23%, 54.5%, 93%, 99%, 12%, 98%, 67%

A	56
B	64.83
C	67
D	None of the above

Question 79 Explanation:

The above data set does not have a mode.

Question 80

What is the median for the numbers 0.03, 0.007, 0.6, 0.05, 0.1, 0.08, 0.006?

A	0.03
B	0.1247
C	0.6
D	None of the above

Question 80 Explanation:

The median for the above numbers is 0.05.

Question 81

Identify the mode for this data set: 1gr, .5gr, .32gr, .55gr, 3gr, 1gr, .5gr, .12gr, .13gr, .55gr, .5gr, 3gr

A	.5gr
B	.55gr
C	3gr
D	None of the above

Question 81 Explanation:

The mode for this data set is .5gr.

Question 82

The pharmacy staff of 18 members had total wages of USD 855,000 for a period of one year. The average wage for a pharmacy employee is USD 50,000. Are employees in this particular pharmacy underpaid or overpaid and by how much?

A	overpaid by 5%
B	underpaid by 5%
C	underpaid by 2.5%
D	They are paid equally as the average wage for pharmacists

Question 82 Explanation:

Employees in this particular pharmacy are underpaid by 5%.

Question 83

The technique of using data to predict future occurrences beyond the existing data set is known as...

A	predictive statistics.
B	extrapolation.
C	data anticipation.
D	None of the above

Question 83 Explanation:

The technique of using data to predict future occurrences beyond the existing data set is known as extrapolation.

Question 84

Two players are playing a card game. The one draws a card from one set of playing cards the jokers not included. The player gets to keep the money if the drawn card is either a queen or a club, otherwise the dealer keeps the money. The dealer has a greater chance of winning the money by how much?

A	30%
B	38%
C	45%
D	55%

Question 84 Explanation:

The dealer has a greater chance of winning the money by 38%.

Question 85

You deposit USD20,000 for a period of of 20 years. The bank employee says you will be receiving a 20% interest on your deposited money every four months. How much money are you going to have in 20 years time?

A	991,228.82
B	20,000
C	220,000
D	None of the above

Question 85 Explanation:

By these conditions, you are going to have in USD991,228.82 in 20 years time.

Question 86

Italy: Mount Etna ::Mount Fuji

A	Italy
B	Japan
C	Russia
D	Argentina

Question 86 Explanation:

Mount Etna is an active volcano in Italy, while Mount Fuji is also an active volcano in Japan.

Question 87

Da Vinci:Vitruvian Man::The two Fridas

A	The Mona Lisa
B	Frida Kahlo
C	Leonardo da Vinci

Question 87 Explanation:

Vitruvian Man is a painting by by Leonardo da Vinci, while The two Fridas is also a painting by Frida Kahlo.

Question 88

Henry David Thoreau : Transcendentalism :: The Beat Generation

A	New Age
B	Alan Ginsberg
C	Walt Whitman
D	None of the above

Question 88 Explanation:

Henry David Thoreau was a poet belonging to the movement of transcendentalism, while Alan Ginsberg was also a poet from the Beat Generation movement.

Question 89

George S. Patton : WW2 ::American Civil War

A	Vietnam War
B	Robert E. Lee
C	WW1
D	None of the above

Question 89 Explanation:

George S. Patton is known for his participation in WW2, while Robert E. Lee is known for his participation in the American Civil War.

Question 90

Please identify the general formula for calculating percentages.

A	(p + n)/100
B	100/(p x n)
C	(p x n)/100
D	None of the above

Question 90 Explanation:

(p x n)/100 is the general formula for calculating percentages.

Question 91

WW2 :: WW1 : Alvin C. York

A	Vietnam War
B	Sergeant York
C	Alvin C. York

Question 91 Explanation:

WW2 is to Sergeant York what WW1 is to Alvin C. York.

Question 92

Flotsam : Jetsam :: Hokum

A	Bunkum
B	Hokus
C	Pokus
D	None of the above

Question 92 Explanation:

Just as flotsam and jetsam refer to the same type of things (shipwreck), hokum and Bunkum refer to the same type of things (types of deception).

Question 93

Realistic appearance : Realism :: Cubism

A	Two dimensionalism
B	Picasso
C	Mathematical precision
D	None of the above

Question 93 Explanation:

Just as realistic appearance is a feature of realism, two dimensionalism is a feature of cubism.

Question 94

Glass : Insulator :: Conductor

A	paper
B	copper
C	porcelain
D	semiconductor

Question 94 Explanation:

Just as glass is an insulator, copper is a conductor.

Question 95

Piano : Classical music :: Mariachi

A	Mexico
B	trumpet
C	guitar
D	None of the above

Question 95 Explanation:

Just as the Piano is the main instrument in classical music, the trumpet is the main instrument in mariachi.

Question 96

fluctuation : alteration :: amalgamation

A	revolution
B	change
C	fusion
D	transfer

Question 96 Explanation:

Just as fluctuation is a synonym for alteration, fusion is a synonym for amalgamation.

Question 97

Italian : ciao :: salut

A	German
B	Spanish
C	French
D	Russian

Question 97 Explanation:

Just as in Italian ciao means 'hello', in French salut means 'hello'.

Question 98

Post : after : re-:

A	never
B	again
C	two
D	None of the above

Question 98 Explanation:

Just as post- is a prefix with the meaning after, re- is a prefix with the meaning again.

Question 99

Vodka : potatoes : Whiskey :

A	cheese
B	hops
C	grains
D	Rum

Question 99 Explanation:

Just as Vodka is made of potatoes, Whiskey is made of grains.

Question 100

Scalpel : Neurosurgeon :: Writer

A	dissection
B	pen
C	creativity
D	None of the above

Question 100 Explanation:

Scalpel is to a neurosurgeon, what the pen is to a writer.

Question 101

Tropics : palm trees :: cacti

A	jungle
B	desert
C	succulents
D	None of the above

Question 101 Explanation:

Just as in the tropics the emblematic vegetation is the palm tree, for the desert the main vegetation is the cactus.

Question 102

Civil Rights : Martin Luther King, Jr. : Women’s rights :

A	Hilary Clinton
B	Susan B. Anthony
C	the Suffragist movement
D	None of the above

Question 102 Explanation:

Just as civil rights in the US were pioneered by Martin Luther King, Jr., women’s rights in the US were pioneered by Susan B. Anthony.

Question 103

La Pietà : Michelangelo :: Picasso

A	Guernica
B	The Mona Lisa
C	Henry Moore
D	None of the above

Question 103 Explanation:

Just as La Pietà is a famous artwork made by Michelangelo, Guernica is a famous artwork by Picasso.

Question 104

Gasoline :: elevator : lift

A	petroleum
B	petrol
C	taxi
D	fuel

Question 104 Explanation:

Just as gasoline and petrol denote the same in American and British English respectively, elevator and lift also refer to the same thing in American and British English respectively.

Question 105

Turkey : Poult : Horse :

A	kid
B	foal
C	cattle
D	None of the above

Question 105 Explanation:

Just as the young of a turkey is called a poult, the young of a horse is called a foal.

Question 106

Venus : planet : space telescope

A	Neptun
B	Hubble
C	Callisto
D	NASA

Question 106 Explanation:

Just as Venus is a planet, Hubble is a space telescope.

Question 107

Haiku : three : sonnet :

A	fourteen
B	verses
C	stanzas
D	eight

Question 107 Explanation:

Just as a Haiku poem consists of three lines, a sonnet consists of fourteen.

Question 108

Ground motion : seismometer :: manometer

A	gas pressure
B	gas volume
C	light
D	air pressure

Question 108 Explanation:

Just as ground motion is measured with a seismometer, gas pressure is measured with a manometer.

Question 109

Friday :: December : January

A	Monday
B	Saturday
C	May
D	None of the above

Question 109 Explanation:

Just as Friday precedes Saturday, December precedes January.

Question 110

Frank Lloyd Wright : Taliesin :: Leonardo's Rivellino

A	Leonardo Da Vinci
B	Leonardo DiCaprio
C	Gaudi
D	None of the above

Question 110 Explanation:

Just as Frank Lloyd Wright is the architect of the Taliesin, Leonardo Da Vinci is the architect of Leonardo's Rivellino.

Question 111

Pulmonologist : asthma :: uterine fibroids

A	endocrinologist
B	gynecologist
C	apologist
D	mycologist

Question 111 Explanation:

Just as a pulmonologist takes care of patients with asthma, a gynecologist is in charge of patients with uterine fibroids.

Question 112

Please identify which of the following is a correct developmental order of an embryo.

A	morula; blastula ; zygote
B	zygote; morula; blastula
C	zygote; embryo; blastula
D	None of the above

Question 112 Explanation:

The embryo developmental cycle contains the stages of zygote; morula; blastula, in this order.

Question 113

What type of glad are the testes?

A	Lymphatic
B	Endocrine
C	Thyroid
D	Sebaceous

Question 113 Explanation:

The testes are considered to be endocrine glands.

Question 114

The mother and the father have the A and AB blood types respectively. Please identify the chance for the baby to have the A blood type.

A	25%
B	50%
C	100%
D	None of the above

Question 114 Explanation:

The chance for the baby to have the A blood type is 50%.

Question 115

A plant wrapped in white-colored paper is having less growth compared to a non-wrapped plant. Why is this the case?

A	The plant's temperature below the paper is too high
B	The plant doesn't get enough chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
C	The plant doesn't get enough vitamin D from the sun
D	None of the above

Question 115 Explanation:

The plant wrapped in white-colored paper is not receiving any light, because white reflects light, and thus cannot get enough chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

Question 116

The myelin sheath forms around ... and increases the impulses speed.

A	nephrons
B	neurons
C	vertebrae
D	None of the above

Question 116 Explanation:

The myelin sheath forms around neurons and increases the impulses speed.

Question 117

A beetle with a color variation that is very similar to its surroundings is more likely to survive than a beetle from the same kind with a more distinctive color. This statements is an example of ...

A	natural selection.
B	animal camouflage.
C	species extinction.
D	None of the above

Question 117 Explanation:

This statements is an example of natural selection.

Question 118

You are asked to add two drops of pure distilled water to a pigment made of red cabbage. You can see on the chart that the pigment table for this pigment starts from pink for substances with a pH 1-2 and progresses by two pH levels in the following order: pink-red-violet-blue-teal-green. What kind of color should you expect to get after dropping the water in it?

A	pink
B	red
C	blue
D	green

Question 118 Explanation:

After dropping the water in the red cabbage pigment, you should expect to get a blue, since pure distilled water usually has a neutral pH of 7.

Question 119

Transcription can refer to the procedure by which the DNA information is copied into a new...

A	enzyme
B	mRNA
C	cell
D	None of the above

Question 119 Explanation:

Transcription can refer to the procedure by which the DNA information is copied into a new mRNA.

Question 120

The dominant species in a plant community experiences change, what is a correct statements about this community?

A	The total community biomass increases.
B	The total community biomass remains unchanged.
C	The community's ability to retain nutrients increases.
D	A and C
E	B and C

Question 120 Explanation:

As dominant species in a plant community experiences change, the total community biomass and the community ability to retain nutrients both increase.

Question 121

Please identify which of the following statements is correct about evolution and succession.

A	Succession happens faster than evolution.
B	Succession happens slower than evolution.
C	Succession happens across species, whereas evolution happens in a some species only.
D	None of the above

Question 121 Explanation:

It is correct that succession happens at a faster rate than evolution.

Question 122

A type of genetic mutation that only affects a single nucleotide is called ...

A	silent mutation.
B	point mutation.
C	base substitution.
D	deletion.

Question 122 Explanation:

A type of genetic mutation that only affects a single nucleotide is called point mutation.

Question 123

The process of glucose oxidation in which ATP molecules are obtained from glucose is called...

A	oxidative phosphorylation.
B	glycolysis.
C	Krebs' cycle.
D	None of the above

Question 123 Explanation:

The process of glucose oxidation in which ATP molecules are obtained from glucose is called glycolysis.

Question 124

Please identify which of the following is NOT a correct statements about water.

A	Ice density is greater than that of liquid water.
B	Water can be found in nature in all three states (gas, solid, liquid).
C	Water is neutral, neither an acid nor a base.
D	None of the above is correct

Question 124 Explanation:

Ice density is lower than that of liquid water.

Question 125

Glycogen is a long chain of ...

A	glucose.
B	lipids.
C	bacteria.
D	sucrose molecules.

Question 125 Explanation:

Glycogen is a long chain of glucose.

Question 126

What is a signal for the start of mRNA translation and indicates the start of the coding region?

A	Alanine
B	Methionine
C	tRNA
D	Glutamine

Question 126 Explanation:

Methionine is a signal for the start of mRNA translation and indicates the start of the coding region.

Question 127

What is the base strand pair to the following one: TCGCATAACGC?

A	ACGCTATTCGC
B	AGCGTATTGCG
C	TGCGATAAGCG
D	None of the above

Question 127 Explanation:

The base strand pair is AGCGTATTGCG.

Question 128

Please identify which of the following statements about photosynthesis is correct.

A	Chlorophyll serves to store sunlight.
B	The waste product of photosynthesis is carbon dioxide.
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 128 Explanation:

The waste product of photosynthesis is not carbon dioxide but oxygen.

Question 129

Please identify which of the following is NOT an inorganic coenzyme.

A	Manganese
B	Selenium
C	Iron
D	All of the above
E	A and B only

Question 129 Explanation:

All of the above are inorganic coenzymes, not produced by the body.

Question 130

Phospholipids are found in which part of the cell?

A	cell nucleus
B	cell membrane
C	cell cytoplasm
D	All of the above

Question 130 Explanation:

Phospholipids are found in the cell membrane.

Question 131

Please identify which of the following is an example of biotic components or biotic factors.

A	penicillum
B	spider web silk
C	microbes
D	All of the above
E	A and B only

Question 131 Explanation:

Biotic factors are any organic elements that affect the ecosystem or other organisms. All of the above are biotic factors/ components.

Question 132

Please identify which of the following statements is correct about the sex in humans.

A	Y-linked mutations can only be inherited from the father.
B	X-linked sex traits are less common in humans than Y-linked.
C	X-linked genes can only be inherited by female offspring.
D	None of the above is correct.

Question 132 Explanation:

It is correct that Y-linked mutations can only be inherited from the father.

Question 133

Organ differentiation takes place during which phase of the embryo development?

A	During blastulation
B	During gastrulation
C	During morulation
D	None of the above

Question 133 Explanation:

Organ differentiation takes place during the gastrula phase of the embryo development.

Question 134

Which of the following is an example of vascular tissue, a conducting tissue in vascular plants?

A	xylem
B	phloem
C	phlegm
D	None of the above
E	A and B

Question 134 Explanation:

Xylem and phloem are examples of vascular tissue, a conducting tissue in vascular plants.

Question 135

Which of the following statements about viruses is NOT correct?

A	Viruses have an established and known life cycle.
B	Viruses have cells, but are not able to replicate on their own.
C	Viruses can infect any kind of a living organism.
D	All of the above are incorrect

Question 135 Explanation:

The statement "Viruses have cells, but are not able to replicate on their own." is incorrect. While it is true that viruses cannot replicate on their own, they do not have cells.

Question 136

log(x), sin(x), and cos(x) are all examples of...

A	Constant functions
B	Exponential functions
C	Elementary functions
D	None of the above

Question 136 Explanation:

These are all examples of elementary functions.

Question 137

Find the point coordinates for point that is reflected across the line y = x, across over the x-axis, and finally across the y-axis and ends up having the coordinates (73, 14).

A	(73, 14)
B	(-14, -73)
C	(73, -14)
D	None of the above

Question 137 Explanation:

The starting coordinates of this point were (-14, -73).

Question 138

The fundamental objects of calculus are...

A	graphs and planes.
B	derivatives and integrals.
C	permutations and combinations.
D	functions and relations.

Question 138 Explanation:

The fundamental objects of calculus are derivatives and integrals.

Question 139

Determine the arithmetic mean of the following: 2x, y, 2x, and 3y, in terms of x, if y=2x+1.

A	3x
B	2x
C	3x+1
D	None of the above

Question 139 Explanation:

The arithmetic mean in terms of x is 3x+1.

Question 140

Adaptive radiation is a process in evolutionary biology, commonly occurring when a sudden environmental change generates new resources. This process is driven by...

A	radioactive processes.
B	natural selection.
C	climate change.
D	None of the above

Question 140 Explanation:

Adaptive radiation is driven by natural selection.

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