Practice Test for the PTCE

Practice Test for the PTCE

Successfully passing the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) rests on effective preparation.

We present you with 35 practice questions based on the PTCE model to familiarize yourself with the test format and revise.

Each question comes with a supplementary clarification of the correct answer.

Benefit from an excellent review of the different types of knowledge needed to master the PTCE.

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Practice Test for the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

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Question 1
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Ophthalmic preparations should be applied after a prior removal of contact lenses. B. Ophthalmic solutions should be applied after forming a pocket by gently pulling down on the lower eyelid with the index finger. C. Ophthalmic solutions of different types should not be applied immediately one after another. D. No systemic effects of ophthalmic preparations are known.
A
Only B
B
B and D
C
A, B and C
D
A and B
Question 1 Explanation: 
Only Statement D is false, because it is possible for ophthalmic solutions to have systemic effects.
Question 2
Identify the calcium channel blocker among the following:
A
Diltiazem
B
Pemoline
C
Phenobarbital
D
Propoxyphene
Question 2 Explanation: 
Pemoline is a CNS stimulant, phenobarbital is a sedative, propoxyphene is an opioid-like agonist, leaving diltiazem as the only calcium channel blocker in the list.
Question 3
Identify a medication of the corticosteroid type among the following:
A
Busulfan
B
Buspirone
C
Budenoside
D
Bumetanide
Question 3 Explanation: 
Busulfan is a non-specific alkylating antineoplastic agent. Buspirone is an anxiolytic mainly used to treat anxiety disorders. Bumetanide is a diuretic used to treat swelling in conditions such as heart failure, kidney disease and liver disease. Budenoside is a corticosteroid.
Question 4
Medications commonly used to control Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) belong to which of the following classes: A. Desmopressin B. Corticosteroids C. Immunosuppressants D. Benzodiazepines
A
Only C
B
C and D
C
A and B
D
B and C
Question 4 Explanation: 
Immunosuppressant and corticosteroid agents are a common choice of drugs used in IBD therapies.
Question 5
In iron deficiency anemia, which of the following statements on the red cell indices would be correct:A. MCV and MCHC are lowB. MCV is low and MCHC is elevatedC. MCV, MCHC and RDW are lowD. RDW is elevated and MCHC is low
A
A and B
B
B and C
C
A and D
D
Only A
Question 5 Explanation: 
Mean cell volume (MCV) and mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) are measurements referring to red blood cell count (RBC) and serve to define the size and hemoglobin content of red blood cells. Red cell distribution width (RDW) delimits the size variation of RBCs. In the case of iron deficiency anemia, MCV and MCHC are low, while RDW is elevated.
Question 6
Which of the following is a medication that decreases hyperacidity in the stomach, commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? 
A
Chlortalidone
B
Ranitidine
C
Methimazole
D
Minoxidil
Question 6 Explanation: 
Known under the brand name Zantac, ranitidine is used in the treatment of ulcers in the stomach and intestines, as well as for prevention after they have first healed.
Question 7
Which of the following statements is true of loratadine:A. It is a first generation H1 antihistamineB. It is a second generation H1 antihistamineC. It binds to H1 receptors of the central nervous systemD. It is selective for H1 receptors of the peripheral nervous system
A
Only B
B
Only A
C
A and C
D
B and D
Question 7 Explanation: 
Marketed as Claritin, among other trade names, loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine used in treating the symptoms of allergic rhinitis and hives. Unlike first-generation antihistamines, loratidine does not pass the blood-brain barrier and has no CNS effects.
Question 8
Which of the following can indicate drug-induced lupus?  
A
Dry cough
B
Fever
C
Fatigue
D
Joint pain
Question 8 Explanation: 
Drug-induced lupus, also known as lupus-like syndrome, is caused in reaction to certain prescription drugs. The common symptoms include pain in the joints and muscles, skin rash on the face and elsewhere on the body, fever and flu-like fatigue, among others.
Question 9
Which of the following conditions are not contraindicated with Itraconazole?A. A history of CHF (congestive heart failure)B. A history of depressionC. High blood pressureD. Fungal meningitis
A
A and C
B
A and D
C
Only B
D
B and C
Question 9 Explanation: 
Fungal meningitis and a history of CHF in patients are both contraindications for the use of Itraconazole in treatment.
Question 10
Identify the high-alert medications among the following:A. Ephedrine, IVB. Gabapentin, POC. Amiodorone, IVD. Fentanyl, transdermal 
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
Only C
D
C and D
Question 10 Explanation: 
High-alert medications carry a high risk of causing significant harm is used incorrectly. Of those listed above, Amiodorone IV, is a high-alert drug. Intravenous Ephedrine is an adrenergic agonist and also high-alert.
Question 11
Meclizine is available in the form of:
A
Tablets only
B
Tablets and topical cream
C
IM injectable, IV injectable and tablets
D
IM injectable
Question 11 Explanation: 
Meclizine is found under the trade names Antivert, and Dramamine, among others, and it is used to treat or prevent nausea or motion sickness.
Question 12
Which of the following is Rifapentine used to treat and what is an adverse effect of this medication?
A
Hypertension, diarrhea
B
Trigeminal neuralgia, ataxia
C
Colon cancer, nausea and vomiting
D
Tuberculosis, neutropenia
Question 12 Explanation: 
Rifapentine, marketed under the trade name Priftin, Rifapentine is used in combination with other medications to treat pulmonary and latent tuberculosis. The drug's adverse effects include neutropenia among others.
Question 13
Which of the following medications are assigned to the Pregnancy Category X:A. SimvastatinB. MisoprostolC. MethotrexateD. Isotretinoin
A
A and B
B
A, B and D
C
All of the above
D
B, C and D
Question 13 Explanation: 
All of the listed medications could cause fetal injury and are thus contraindicated for pregnant women.
Question 14
Which of the following instructions should be given for taking sulfasalazine?A. Take the medication on an empty stomachB. The medication may cause increased sensitivity to the sunC. Drink a lot of fluids throughout the medication useD. Take the medication after meals
A
A, B and C only
B
B, C and D only
C
B and C only
D
All of the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Sulfasalazine is a DMARD (a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug). It may cause photosensitivty, should be taken after meals and with increased fluids intake during use to prevent kidney stones. Thus, the correct statements are B, C and D.
Question 15
Which of the following will not lead to enhancing the solubility of a poorly soluble compound?A. Hot-melt extrusion (HME)B. Hydrating an anhydrous compoundC. Converting a crystalline medicine into its initial amorphous form - yesD. Nanosuspension
A
A and B
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
A and C
Question 15 Explanation: 
Many new active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) are characterized with poor water solubility and consequent poor bioavailability. Hydrating a compound that contains no water, makes it less soluble than in its anhydrous form. All the other proposed statements refer to techniques for solubility enhancement.
Question 16
Identify the wrong pairing of the drug's generic name with its brand name:
A
ranitidine - Zantac
B
zaleplon - Sonata
C
glipizide - Glucotrol
D
lovastatin - Norvasc
Question 16 Explanation: 
All of the pairings are correct except D. Norvasc is the brand name of amlodipine. The brand name of lovastatin is Mevacor.
Question 17
Which of the following does not appear on the list of side effects of ramipril?
A
Dry cough
B
Esophagitis
C
Bronchospasm
D
Sever stomach ache
Question 17 Explanation: 
Ramipril, marketed as Altace, is most commonly used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and prevent cardiovascular diseases. All of the above can be adverse effects of ramipril, except for esophagitis, or inflammation of the esophagus, which does not appear as a possible adverse effect of the drug.
Question 18
Which of the following is correct of droperidol?A. It is an antidopaminergic and an antipsychotic.B. It is used to treat or prevent nausea.C. It is contraindicated in patients with prolonged QT interval values.D. It can cause bronchospasm as a side effect.
A
A, B and C
B
All of the above
C
A and B only
D
B, C and D
Question 18 Explanation: 
All of the above statements describe droperidol.
Question 19
Which of the following is correct of ipratropium?
A
It is available as a generic medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia-BPH in men.
B
It belongs to the class of sulfonylureas.
C
It is an anti-cholinergic agent used to control and prevent bronchospasm in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D
It is a dihydropyridine (DHP) calcium channel blocker used to control the symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon
Question 19 Explanation: 
Ipratropium, sold under the brand name Atrovent, is a quaternary ammonium compound and an anti-cholinergic agent commonly used to alleviate and prevent breathing problems caused by lung diseases such as COPD or asthma.
Question 20
What would be the best course of action for a pharmacist in the following situation: They are out of Ambien refills that a patient with a prescription for it requires.
A
Inform the patient of the situation and excuse yourself that nothing can be done for him
B
Contact the prescriber and ask if a refill could possibly be arranged by them
C
Only call the prescriber if the patient appears visibly severely sleep deprived
D
Both B and C are correct
Question 20 Explanation: 
Just like with dose clarifications and inquiries, pharmacists should call the patient's prescriber in case of a limited, as only the doctor can order a refill.
Question 21
Which of the following are correct of tizanidine:A. It is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat muscle spasticityB. It is an α-2 agonist with sedative and analgesic effectsC. It can lower blood pressure as a side effectD. It is sold under the brand name Flexeril
A
A and B
B
A, B and C
C
All of the above
D
A, B and D
Question 21 Explanation: 
All of the above statements are correct of tizanidine, except for D. Tizanidine is marketed as Zanaflex. Flexeril is the brand name for cyclobenzaprine, another drug in the class of skeletal muscle relaxants.
Question 22
Dimenhydrinate  is
A
... an α-2 agonist
B
... an OTC drug
C
... an antihistamine
D
Both B and C
Question 22 Explanation: 
Dimenhydrinate, marketed as Dramamine among other brand names, is an OTC (over-the-counter) antihistamine indicated for motion sickness and nausea.
Question 23
What is the meaning of the NDA, ANDA and SNDA acronyms respectively?
A
Nominal Dose Accuracy, Atypical Nominal Dose Accuracy, Strict Nominal Dose Accuracy
B
New Drug Application, Admissible New Drug Application, Sales New Drug Application
C
New Drug Application, Abbreviated New Drug Application, Supplemental New Drug Application
D
None of the above
Question 23 Explanation: 
The New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted to the US Food and Drugs Administration (FDA) to seek approval for sale for a new pharmaceutical. An Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) is submitted for generic drug approval for an existing licensed medication. The Supplemental New Drug Application (sNDA) is submitted to modify the dosage, label or other of an existing licensed drug.
Question 24
Which of the following is a possible adverse effect of lansoprazole?
A
Blood in stool, vomiting red blood, and anemia
B
Myocardial infarction, stroke, and gastrointestinal bleeding
C
Palpitations, asthma, and hyperkalemia
D
A and B
Question 24 Explanation: 
Lansoprazole belongs to the class of proton pump inhibitors. It is used for symptom relief in patients with duodenal ulcer. All of the above appear on the list of possible adverse effects of this drug, except for hyperkalemia and anemia.
Question 25
Xifaxan is indicated for the treatment of
A
travelers' diarrhea
B
xerosis
C
anxiety and panic disorders
D
glaucoma
Question 25 Explanation: 
Xifaxan is the trade name of rifaximin, an antibiotic used to treat traveler's diarrhea.
Question 26
Which of the following pairings of the chemotheraphy agents and the class of drugs it belongs to are correct?A. Idarubicin, a topoisomerase inhibitorB. Melphalan, a nitrogen mustard alkylating agentC. Rotigotine, a purine antimetaboliteD. Docetaxel, a taxane mitotic inhibitor
A
All of the above
B
All of the above except for B
C
All of the above except for C
D
A and C
Question 26 Explanation: 
All of the above combinations are correct except for C, since rotigotine is a non-ergoline dopamine agonist.
Question 27
Which of the following medications is effective in managing the symptoms of active Crohn's disease (CD)?A. MercaptopurineB. MethotrexateC. MethocarbamolD. Azathioprine 
A
All of the above
B
All of the above except for C
C
All of the above except for
Question 27 Explanation: 
Immunosuppressors including mercaptopurine (6-MP), methotrexate and azathioprine are effective in treating Crohn's Disease, which is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant.
Question 28
Identify which of the following is not a combination drug:
A
Vytorin
B
Lomotil
C
Vicodin
D
None of the above
Question 28 Explanation: 
All of the above are brand names of combination medicines. Vytorin is ezetimibe and simvastatin, Lomotil is atropine and diphenoxylate, while Vicodin is hydrocodone and paracetamol.
Question 29
Which form of metronidazole is not appropriate?
A
Gel
B
Capsule
C
Tincture
D
Injectable
Question 29 Explanation: 
Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic, which reacts with alcohol causing a range of adverse effects. Alcohol should be avoided while using nitroimidazole, hence a tincture is not allowed as a dosage form.
Question 30
Identify which of the following medicine forms can refer to drotrecogin alfa?A. Oral capsules, 100 mgB. Topical ointment, 5%C. Lyophilized powder for infusion solutionD. Subcutaneous injection
A
None of the above
B
Only C
C
C and D
D
B and D
Question 30 Explanation: 
Drotrecogin alfa, formerly known as recombinant Human Activated Protein C, is used in adult patients with severe sepsis. It is available as lyophilized powder for preparing a solution for intravenous administration.
Question 31
Flumazenil injection is indicated for:
A
paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF)
B
reversing the effects of benzodiazepines
C
controlling rhinitis symptoms
D
None of the above
E
Trigeminal neuralgia
Question 31 Explanation: 
Flumazenil is a selective GABAA receptor antagonist and a reversal drug for benzodiazepines.
Question 32
Identify which statements could refer to Phase II in a clinical trial:A. Phase II trials aim to determine whether the new medication is safe or toxic.B. The purpose of phase II trials is to compare the effectiveness of the new drug with the standard medication.C. Phase II trials are conducted with smaller groups of patients than Phase I trials.D. Phase II trials can last for more than one year.
A
None of the above
B
Only B
C
Only D
D
C and D
Question 32 Explanation: 
Only statement D is correct of Phase II clinical trials, as these can last from several months to two years.
Question 33
Which statement describes the mechanism of action of gentamicin? 
A
Interferes with bacterial protein synthesis by irreversibly binding the 30S subunits of ribosomes
B
Inhibits the regulation enzymes in bacterial protein synthesis
C
Inhibits bacterial RNA polymerases synthesis in Gram-positive bacteria
D
Binds to membrane phospholipids, interfering with bacterial cell membrane integrity in Gram-negative bacteria
Question 33 Explanation: 
Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic marketed as Garamycin, among other brand names. It is used against a range of different bacteria and works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 30S subunits of ribosomes.
Question 34
Erythromycin comes in the form of:A. Delayed release capsulesB. Enteric-Coated (EC) tabletsC. Oral Suspension powder
A
A and B
B
None of the above
C
All of the above
D
B and C
Question 34 Explanation: 
Erythromycin is a prescription macrolide antibiotic medicine used to fight bacterial infection. All of the above can be dosage forms of erythromycin delivery.
Question 35
A patient is experiencing fatigue and myalgia. The 52-year-old woman is already using propylthiouracil (PTU), esomeprazole , atorvastatin  and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for existing diagnoses of hyperthyroidism, gastroesophageal reflux disease, hypertension and high blood cholesterol level. A blood test result showed a TSH level of 3.1, and 140 mg/dL for the total cholesterol value, while the blood pressure was 131/81. Which of the patient's medications would need reconsideration in order to address her symptoms?A. PropylthiouracilB. EsomeprazoleC. AtorvastatinD. Hydrochlorothiazide
A
A and C
B
A, C and D
C
Only C
D
B and D
Question 35 Explanation: 
The atorvastatin dosages should be adjusted, because the patient is experiencing adverse effects of statin use, namely, muscle ache and fatigue. The thyroid test values are within a normal range.
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