NCLEX-RN Practice Exam: Get Ready for Your NCLEX Test

NCLEX-RN Practice Exam

The NCLEX-RN Practice Exam is a nursing examination that ought to be passed before the beginning of the candidate’s practice as an RN.

This is a National Council Licensing Examination for Registered Nurses administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN).

If passed, this examination will validate the candidate’s competence to provide functional nursing care.

The exam covers a number of topics in the realm of Medical-Surgical Nursing, as well as medical conditions such as anemia, cancer, tracheostomy as well as cardiovascular diseases among others.

NCLEX-RN Practice Exam

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Question 1
Which of the following should be used in order to prevent the development of cerebral edema after craniotomy surgery?
A
Steroids.
B
Diuretics.
C
Antihypertensive.
D
Anticonvulsants.
Question 1 Explanation: 
Steroids, or glucocorticoids, have anti-inflammatory properties that reduce the development of edema.
Question 2
What should the nurse do if a female patient reports lumbar pain during the administration of blood?
A
Record the patient's vital signs.
B
Notify the blood bank about the patient's condition.
C
Perform further assessment of the patient's pain.
D
Stop the infusion and promote the flow of normal saline.
Question 2 Explanation: 
The blood volume of the patient must be maintained and, therefore, the blood must be stopped and the normal saline infused.
Question 3
Please mark the parameters which indicate a positive diagnosis of HIV:
A
Patent's promiscuous behavior.
B
Positive ELISA and western blood tests.
C
Identified infections associated with HIV.
D
High fever and obvious weight loss.
Question 3 Explanation: 
The ELISA, as well as the western blood tests, confirm the presence of HIV antibodies.
Question 4
Please mark the food which a patient with a chronic renal failure has selected from the menu as a high-biologic-value protein:
A
Cottage cheese.
B
Apple juice.
C
Raw carrots.
D
Whole wheat bread.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Cottage cheese contains proteins of high biologic value that are rich in amino acids which are essential for life.
Question 5
Please mark the complications which may indicate effects of uremic syndrome:
A
Hypokalemia.
B
Flapping hand tremors.
C
Hypotension.
D
An increased level of hematocrit.
Question 5 Explanation: 
Flapping hand tremors are a common symptom in the case of uremic syndrome.
Question 6
Which of the following should be a nurse's primary assessment if to a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A
Perineal edema.
B
Urethral discharge.
C
Pain in the groin.
D
Bloated lower abdomen.
Question 6 Explanation: 
Bloated lower abdomen would indicate that the bladder is swollen due to the excessive amounts of urine.
Question 7
Please mark the action that should be taken by a nurse if a patient who has received a penile implant reports feeling painful scrotum:
A
The nurse should apply warm socks to the scrotum.
B
The nurse should use soft support to elevate the patient's scrotum.
C
The nurse should prepare to perform drainage or incision on the patient.
D
The nurse should assist the patient with a sitz bath.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Elevation significantly decreases edema and pain.
Question 8
Please mark the issue which would most likely be associated with an increased level of myoglobin found in laboratory tests of a patient who suffers from chest pain:
A
Cancer.
B
Liver disease.
C
Myocardial damage.
D
Hypertension.
Question 8 Explanation: 
Myocardial damage is best diagnosed with an assessment of myoglobin.
Question 9
Please mark the symptoms that follow the condition of mitral stenosis:
A
Congestion in the aorta.
B
Congestion in the superior vena cava.
C
Congestion in the right atrium.
D
Congestion in the pulmonary.
Question 9 Explanation: 
The mitral stenosis causes pulmonary circulation to be under pressure due to the lack of a valve that would prevent backward flow into the pulmonary vein.
Question 10
Please mark the essential nursing diagnosis to a patient who is diagnosed with hypertension:
A
Undiligent maintenance of health.
B
Pain.
C
Deficiency in fluids.
D
Impaired skin integrity.
Question 10 Explanation: 
Patients with hypertension must maintain their condition due to its asymptomatic nature.
Question 11
Which of the following are common side effects of nitroglycerin:
A
Breath shortages.
B
Headaches.
C
Hypertension.
D
Stomach cramps.
Question 11 Explanation: 
Nitroglycerin contains vasodilating effects that provoke headaches, lightheadedness, and hypotension.
Question 12
Please mark the risk factor for the development of PVD and atherosclerosis:
A
Low levels of LDL cholesterol.
B
Low levels of triglycerides.
C
High levels of LDL cholesterol.
D
High levels of HDL cholesterol.
Question 12 Explanation: 
The high level of LDL cholesterol is a risk factor for the development of PVD and atherosclerosis.
Question 13
Post-surgical repair of aortic aneurysm is threatened by:
A
Potential alteration in renal perfusion.
B
A potential balance of electrolytes.
C
Potential ineffective coping.
D
Potential wound infection.
Question 13 Explanation: 
The potential alteration in renal perfusion may cause artery embolism, aortic cross-clamping or hypotension during surgery.
Question 14
Which of these foods are most effective as B12 supplements:  
A
Broccoli.
B
Dairy products.
C
Vegetables.
D
Grains.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Dairy products are an excellent source of vitamin B12.
Question 15
Which of these physiologic functions would alter in a patient with aplastic anemia?
A
Peripheral sensation.
B
Intake and output.
C
Bowel function.
D
Bleeding.
Question 15 Explanation: 
Bleeding and bruising are at high risk in aplastic anemia.
Question 16
Which of these should be the final assessment before a patient undergoes elective splenectomy:
A
The nurse should check the vital signs.
B
The nurse should check the signed consent.
C
The nurse should check the name band.
D
The nurse should check if the patient's bladder is empty.
Question 16 Explanation: 
The vital signs are the final check of the elective procedure that must be completed before the patient is removed from the room.
Question 17

What is the peak incidence of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?

A
60 to 70 years of age.
B
40 to 50 years of age.
C
4 to 12 years of age.
D
30 to 40 years of age.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The peak age range of ALL is 4 to 12 years of age.
Question 18

Please mark which of these does NOT belong to the symptoms related to Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia:

A
Gastric distension.
B
Meningeal irritation.
C
Chemotherapy side effects.
D
Effects of radiation.
Question 18 Explanation: 
ALL attacks the central nervous system but it does not cause gastric distension.
Question 19

Please mark a contraindication regarding a patient diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC):

A
Dispensing Coumadin
B
Dispensing Heparin
C
Treating the secondary symptoms
D
Replacing the used up supply of blood products
Question 19 Explanation: 
DIC does not respond to Coumadin, an oral anticoagulant.
Question 20

Please mark the most appropriate indication regarding fluid replacement to a patient who suffers from a hypovolemic shock:

A
Urine output that exceeds 30 ml/h
B
Respiratory rate at 21 breaths/ minute
C
Diastolic blood pressure that exceeds 90 mmHg
D
Systolic blood pressure that exceeds 100mmHg
Question 20 Explanation: 
The urine output is the most reliable indicator that the therapy to the client with hypovolemic shock is effective.
Question 21

Please mark the symptom which indicates an early stage of laryngeal cancer:

A
Stomatitis
B
Hoarseness
C
Dysphagia
D
Airway obstruction
Question 21 Explanation: 
Hoarseness is one of the most common symptoms of laryngeal cancer.
Question 22

Immunosuppressive therapy is effective for patients with myasthenia gravis due to:

A
The fact that it stimulates the production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
B
The fact that it decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors.
C
The fact that it hinders the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
D
The fact that it promotes the removal of antibodies that obstruct impulse transmission.
Question 22 Explanation: 
This is a steroid therapy that decreases the body's immune response.
Question 23

The IV Mannitol would be most safely administered if aligned with the following assessment:

A
Daily weight measurement
B
Level of consciousness q4h
C
Vital signs q4h
D
Hourly output of urine
Question 23 Explanation: 
This drug is a diuretic that can cause contraindications if there is an inadequate renal function or heart failure.
Question 24

What are the possible advantages of using pen-like-insulin delivery devices over syringes for patients with diabetes mellitus?

A
Shorter injection time.
B
Use of a gauge needle of smaller size.
C
Lower cost of reusable insulin.
D
Accurate deliverance of doses.
Question 24 Explanation: 
These devices provide a discrete dispense of insulin and have improved diligence to insulin therapies by young people.
Question 25

What should a nurse do if a patient suffers from fractured tibia due to a car accident and wants to assess any damage to major blood vessels?

A
The nurse should monitor if there is any swelling of the patient's left thigh.
B
The nurse should monitor if there is increased body temperature on the patient's feet.
C
The nurse should monitor if there us any prolonged reperfusion of the toes.
D
The nurse should monitor if the blood pressure is increased.
Question 25 Explanation: 
Damaged blood vessels may decrease circulatory perfusion and prevent blood supply.
Question 26
What should a patient do after his leg cast has been removed?
A
Make breaks between long intervals of sitting and elevate the leg.
B
Inform the physician about any discomfort.
C
Provide hygiene by scrubbing the leg.
D
Practice daily activities that would put the leg into motion.
Question 26 Explanation: 
Elevation prevents the edema that would occur in most cases of this type.
Question 27
A patient is suffering from gout of the great toe. The nurse should assess for urate deposits on the:
A
Patient's face.
B
Patient's abdomen.
C
Patient's ears.
D
Patient's buttocks.
Question 27 Explanation: 
The ears are a cartilaginous tissue which is likely to result with deposits of uric acid due to the low blood flow.
Question 28
A patient will demonstrate crutch walking with a tripod gait by placing weight:
A
On their set-apart feet.
B
On their axillary regions.
C
On the palms of their hands.
D
On the palms of their hands and their axillary regions.
Question 28 Explanation: 
In order to protect the nerves in the axilla, the patient's weight should be born by the palms of their hands.
Question 29
What supportive action should a nurse take to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, who reports feeling painless only when he is at bed rest: 
A
The nurse should encourage the patient to exercise twice a day.
B
The nurse should encourage the patient to do exercises that support flexion, twice a day.
C
The nurse should encourage the patient to lie still until he the pain vanishes.
D
The nurse should initiate active flexion and extension of the patient's joints.
Question 29 Explanation: 
Pain and stiffness in joints would be subsided only through active flexion, extension, and similar exercises.
Question 30
Please mark the action that a nurse should take to a male patient who underwent spinal surgery:
A
Keep a record of the patient's voiding and bowel movement.
B
Put the patient to a prone position.
C
Perform a check-up of the patient's feet for circulation and sensory reflections.
D
Encourage the patient to increase their fluid intake.
Question 30 Explanation: 
If the sensation and circulation are not regular, this may indicate damage to the spinal cord.
Question 31
Please mark the compulsory assessment for patients with acute renal failure who continue with a diuretic phase:
A
Assessment of hyperkalemia.
B
Assessment of metabolic acidosis.
C
Assessment of renal failure.
D
Assessment of hypovolemia.
Question 31 Explanation: 
Hypovolemia is possible to occur during the diuretic phase in which fluid excretion takes place and reaches up to 5 l. per day.
Question 32
Please mark the test which distinguishes mucus from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
A
Specific gravity.
B
Glucose.
C
Protein.
D
Microorganism.
Question 32 Explanation: 
A glucose test will determine if the body fluid is a CSF, depending on the present glucose content.
Question 33
Please mark what ought to be one of the primary causes of tonic-clonic seizures in over-20-year-old adults:
A
Head trauma.
B
Electrolyte imbalance.
C
Epilepsy.
D
Congenital defect.
Question 33 Explanation: 
Trauma is one of the most common causes of seizure activity in adults of this age.
Question 34
A patient with thrombotic CVA is admitted. What should be a nurse's primary assessment in the first 24 hours?
A
The nurse should check the patient's cholesterol level.
B
The nurse should check the patient's echocardiogram.
C
The nurse should check the patient's bowel sounds.
D
The nurse should check the patient's pupil size and pupillary response.
Question 34 Explanation: 
The nurse must assess the patient's pupil size and pupillary response to notice any alterations in the cranial nerves area.
Question 35
Please mark the most adequate instructions that ought to be given to a multiple sclerosis patient who is about to be discharged from hospital:
A
"It is necessary to accept a passive and quiet lifestyle".
B
"You might alter your health condition by practicing new, health routines".
C
"Maintain an active routine and stress-relieving activities that would subside fatigue".
D
"Be prepared to use mechanical aids when disabilities progress".
Question 35 Explanation: 
The multiple sclerosis patients require positive reinforcement regarding their lifestyle, habits and daily routines. It is important to encourage them to stay active, reduce stress and thus, improve their immune system.
Question 36
Please mark the early indicator of hypoxia in an unconscious patient:
A
Hypertension.
B
Cyanosis.
C
Increased respirations.
D
Sudden unease.
Question 36 Explanation: 
Sudden unease and restless behavior is an early sign of hypoxia.
Question 37
The function of the bladder of a patient who has experienced spinal shock would be:
A
Uncontrolled.
B
Normal.
C
Atonic.
D
Spastic.
Question 37 Explanation: 
In this case, the bladder turns atonic and this requires catheterization of the patient.
Question 38
Please mark the irreversible stage of cancer:
A
Promotion stage.
B
Initiation stage.
C
Progression stage.
D
Regression stage.
Question 38 Explanation: 
The irreversible stage is the progression stage that indicates a fast-growing, irreversible tumor.
Question 39
Please mark the most important indicator of pain:
A
Intensity.
B
Origin.
C
Causing factors.
D
Effect.
Question 39 Explanation: 
Intensity is as the major indicator that would significantly assess the treatment.
Question 40
Which of the following actions may aggravate flare-ups to a patient who suffers a flare-up of pruritus:
A
Using 100% cotton fabrics.
B
Practicing baths with fragrant cosmetics.
C
Sleeping in humified, cold rooms.
D
Increasing fluid intake.
Question 40 Explanation: 
Pruritus may be boosted by the use of fragranced cosmetics as they dry the skin.
Question 41
Please mark a patient who is NOT related to Atropine sulfate:
A
A patient with hypertension.
B
A patient with glaucoma.
C
A patient with U.T.I.
Question 41 Explanation: 
Atropine sulfate increases intraocular pressure and therefore is not indicated to glaucoma.
Question 42
Which of the following patients might experience potential side effects from surgical experience?
A
A 15-year-old patient.
B
A 33-year-old-patient.
C
A 67-year-old-patient.
D
A 49-year-old-patient.
Question 42 Explanation: 
A 67-year-old-patient is an elderly patient whose immune system is likely to be more limited.
Question 43
Please mark the action of assessment that ought to follow the assessment of vital signs to a patient who underwent epidural anesthesia:
A
Lightheadedness.
B
A headache.
C
Unobstructed leg motion.
D
Bladder distension.
Question 43 Explanation: 
The nurse should check the perineal area and monitor if the patient shows any signs of having a distended bladder.
Question 44
Please mark what you consider NOT to be drugs used against the symptoms of Ménière’s Disease:
A
Diuretics.
B
Antihistamines.
C
Glucocorticoids.
D
Antiemetics.
Question 44 Explanation: 
Glucocorticoids are not used in the treatment of this disease.
Question 45
Please mark the possible complication that might occur in tracheostomy tube:
A
Damaged laryngeal nerves.
B
Hypertension.
C
Increased cardiac output.
D
A syndrome of acute respiratory distress.
Question 45 Explanation: 
Laryngeal nerve damage is one of the most frequent complications that occur due to a tracheostomy tube.
Question 46
What could cause a fluid shift in a patient who suffers from a burn injury?
A
An increase in the total volume of blood circulation.
B
An increase in the total volume of intravascular plasma.
C
An increase in the permeability of capillary walls.
D
An increase in the permeability of kidney tubules.
Question 46 Explanation: 
An increase in the permeability of capillary walls occurs due to burn which causes a release of a histamine-like substance that provokes a loss of major quantities of fluids.
Question 47
Please mark the most probable cause of bruises to an 80-year-old patient who has ecchymotic areas on their arm:
A
Abuse.
B
Self-inflicted wound.
C
Increased blood supply.
D
Increased fragility and permeability of the capillaries.
Question 47 Explanation: 
Increased fragility and permeability of the capillaries is very common in elderly patients who have an increased quantity of extravascular blood in their dermis.
Question 48
Please mark the common symptom of renal carcinoma:
A
Weight gain.
B
Flank pain.
C
Intermittent hematuria.
D
Nausea and vomiting.
Question 48 Explanation: 
Intermittent hematuria and pain is the most common sign of this type of carcinoma.
Question 49
Which of the following is the most appropriate answer that ought to be given if a patient with tuberculosis asks for the continuity of their chemotherapy?
A
3 to 5 months.
B
6 to 12 months.
C
1 to 3 weeks.
D
3 years or more.
Question 49 Explanation: 
6 to 12 months is the most optimal period for a tuberculosis treatment that takes a longer period of time to eradicate the Tubercle bacillus.
Question 50
Please mark the priority action regarding a patient who has undergone laryngectomy:
A
The nurse should provide emotional support.
B
The nurse should check if any infections have taken place.
C
The nurse should promote aids for communication.
D
The nurse should prevent secretions flow into the trachea.
Question 50 Explanation: 
Removal of secretions is a top priority in order to provide safe and free breathing for the patient.
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