NCLEX-PN Practice Test: Get Ready for Your NCLEX Exam

NCLEX-PN Practice Test

The NCLEX-PN Practice Exam is an entry-level nursing examination and it ought to be passed before the beginning of the candidate’s practice as a vocational/practical nurse.

This is a National Council Licensing Examination for Practical Nurses administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN).

It covers a number of topics in the realm of Medical-Surgical Nursing.

The NCLEX-PN Practice Test confirms that the entry-level practical nurses are competent to provide functional and safe nursing practice.

NCLEX-PN Practice Quiz

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Question 1
What kind of intended effect should a Stadol (butorphanol) cause to a postoperative patient?
A
The patient reports feeling less nausea.
B
The patient requires extra meals.
C
The patient falls asleep half an hour after the medication has been dispensed.
D
The patient has increased output of urine.
Question 1 Explanation: 
This medication is a pain reliever which provides quality rest to post-operative patients.
Question 2
Please mark one of the following symptoms that may occur to children patients with cystic fibrosis:
A
Enlarged adenoids.
B
Nasal polyps.
C
Choanal atresia.
D
Septal deviations.
Question 2 Explanation: 
Children with cystic fibrosis often suffer from chronic sinusitis and nasal polyps.
Question 3
Which of the following medications is contraindicated to a patient with hepatitis A?
A
Synthroid (levothyroxine)
B
Prilosec (omeprazole)
C
Premarin (conjugated estrogens)
D
Lipitor (atorvastatin)
Question 3 Explanation: 
Lipitor is an agent that lowers lipids and is contraindicated to a patient with this disease.
Question 4
Please mark the diet you find appropriate for a patient with hypertension:
A
Pancakes, ham, coffee, tomato juice.
B
Oatmeal, apple juice, dry toast, coffee.
C
Cornflakes, whole milk, banana, coffee.
D
Bacon, scrambled eggs, toast, coffee.
Question 4 Explanation: 
The diet for patients with hypertension must be focused on decreasing sodium and increasing fiber. The oatmeal is low in sodium while containing lots of fiber.
Question 5
Please mark the most adequate instruction for a toddler patient who is discharged after a hypospadias repair:  
A
The child will have to follow a special diet.
B
The child should avoid straddling toys and rough play.
C
The child shouldn't be diapered for 1-2 weeks.
D
The pain of the child will decrease if warm compresses are regularly applied.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The child mustn't get involved in rough play nor swim or play with toys such as rocking horse until the surgeon allows that.
Question 6
Please mark the most appropriate advice that ought to be given to an obstetrical patient with complaints of morning sickness:
A
The patient should skip breakfast but eat more at lunch or supper.
B
The patient should drink a glass of orange juice with several teaspoons of sugar.
C
The patient should drink a glass of milk before bedtime.
D
The patient should keep crackers on their bedside table and eat them before they arise.
Question 6 Explanation: 
Crackers are a rich source of carbohydrates that reduce symptoms of morning sickness.
Question 7
Please mark the action of caretaking that is most closely associated with a patient who suffers from MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus):
A
Cleaning the stethoscope with water, drying it and returning it to the nurse's station.
B
Leaving the stethoscope in the patient's room for further use.
C
Using the stethoscope for assessment of blood pressure of other patients.
D
Cleaning the stethoscope with alcohol and returning it to the exam room.
Question 7 Explanation: 
The stethoscope should be left in the patient's room for further use.
Question 8
Which of the following should be a nurse's instruction to parents with an infant with congenital hypothyroidism?
A
"The medication should be given once a day, every other day".
B
"The medication schedule can be settled to obtain medication vacation".
C
"The medication has to be given during the entire lifetime of the child".
D
"The medication will need to be taken only during periods of rapid growth".
Question 8 Explanation: 
An infant patient with congenital hypothyroidism has to take the medication during its entire lifetime.
Question 9
Please mark the most appropriate time of taking of the medication Glucotrol XL (glipizide) for a patient with diabetes mellitus:
A
After supper.
B
Before lunch.
C
At bedtime.
D
With breakfast.
Question 9 Explanation: 
Glucotrol XL needs to be taken daily with breakfast.
Question 10
Which of the following indicates the condition of myasthenia gravis?
A
Cogwheel rigidity and declined coordination.
B
Progression of weakness that worsens at the end of the day.
C
Ascending paralysis and loss of motor function.
Question 10 Explanation: 
The most frequent symptom of a patient with this condition is weakness that progresses and becomes worse during the day.
Question 11
Please mark the instruction that ought to be given by a nurse to parents of a baby with osteogenesis imperfecta:
A
"Only the bones are affected by this disease".
B
"The baby will need to take calcium supplements every day".
C
"Remember to lift the baby by buttocks when diapering".
D
"This condition is only temporary".
Question 11 Explanation: 
The baby in this condition should be lifted by the buttocks during diapering in order to avoid any fractures.
Question 12
Patients with acute pancreatitis are ordered with NG tube to low intermittent suction and a strict NPO. What would these interventions do?
A
Eliminate the need for analgesics.
B
Prevent secretion of gastric acid.
C
Decline the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
D
Reduce the need for insulin.
Question 12 Explanation: 
A patient on a strict NPO status results in anti-inflammatory condition due to the declined secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
Question 13
Which of the following indicates a possible complication of diverticulitis:
A
Abdominal distention.
B
Low-grade fever.
C
Pain in the left lower quadrant.
D
Board-like abdomen.
Question 13 Explanation: 
A board-like abdomen indicates peritonitis which is a complication of diverticulitis.
Question 14
Which of the following medications is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis:
A
Tensilon (edrophonium)
B
Didronel (etidronate)
C
Pyridostigmine (neostigmine)
D
Atropine (atropine sulfate)
Question 14 Explanation: 
Pyridostigmine is the medication used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis.
Question 15
Please mark the most adequate diet for an AIDS patient who faced a rapid loss gain in one month:
A
A high-calorie diet with carbohydrates and low on proteins.
B
A high-calorie diet that is high on fats but low on carbohydrates.
C
A high-calorie diet that is high on both proteins and fats.
D
A high-calorie diet that is high on proteins but low on fats.
Question 15 Explanation: 
A high-calorie diet that is high on proteins but low on fats due to the AIDS patients declined tolerance to fat.
Question 16
Which of the following interventions would prepare a child with cerebral palsy for rehabilitation?
A
Patching one eye to strengthen the muscles.
B
Providing auditory training through music.
C
Providing suckers and pinwheel to improve tongue movement.
D
Improving muscle coordination by playing a video game.
Question 16 Explanation: 
A child with cerebral palsy ough to be prepared for rehabilitation by developing tongue control that would contribute to the speech therapy.
Question 17
When do infants begin sleeping during the entire night?
A
When they are 3-4 months old.
B
When they are 5-6 months old.
C
When they are 1 month old.
D
When they are 2 months old.
Question 17 Explanation: 
Infants start practicing nocturnal sleep of 9 to 11 hours when they are at the age of 3-4 months.
Question 18
Please mark the child patient you consider to be most threatened by latex allergy:
A
A patient with myelomeningocele.
B
A patient with epispadias.
C
A patient with coxa plana.
D
A patient with rheumatic fever.
Question 18 Explanation: 
A child patient who is suffering od this disease can easily become prone to latex allergy because of the frequent exposure to latex surgical products and due to the usage of the urinary catheters.
Question 19
Please mark the most adequate instruction given to a parent of a child with cystic fibrosis regarding postural drainage:
A
"Change the position of the child every 20 minutes".
B
"During percussion, use the heel of your hand".
C
"The percussion ought to be done after meal consuming or at bedtime".
D
"During percussion, use cupped hands".
Question 19 Explanation: 
During chest percussion, a parent or a nurse needs to perform with cupped hands.
Question 20
What should a nurse do if she needs to dispense an antibiotic of 1.25 ml to an infant?
A
Divide the medication's quantity into two separate injections and administer in each Vastus Lateralis muscle.
B
Administer the medication through a single injection in the Dorsogluteal muscle.
C
Divide the medication's quantity into two separate injections and administer one of them in the Vastus Lateralis muscle and the other one in the Ventrogluteal muscle.
D
Administer the medication through a single injection in the Ventrogluteal muscle.
Question 20 Explanation: 
An infant mustn't receive more than 1mL in the Vastus Lateralis.
Question 21
When should a patient with schizophrenia receive the following depot injection of his therapy with Haldol Decanoate (haloperidol decanoate)?
A
In 2 weeks.
B
In 1 week.
C
In 4 weeks.
D
In 6 weeks.
Question 21 Explanation: 
The depot injections of Haldol ought to be dispensed every 4 weeks.
Question 22
Please mark the adequate instruction that ought to be given to the parents of a discharged child patient who is immobilized in a hip spica cast?
A
"Provide a flat bed and place a small pillow beneath the cast".
B
"A coloring book and crayons are most suitable activities for play".
C
"The child ought to follow a high-calorie diet".
D
"Remember to put a disposable diaper beneath the cast at the perineal area".
Question 22 Explanation: 
A disposable diaper at the perineal area would prevent soiling of the cast by any physical excrements".
Question 23
Please mark one of the following symptoms that should be reported to the physician regarding a patient who has had reimplantation of the thumb and index finger:
A
The patient has difficulty in moving the digits.
B
The patient reports feeling pain.
C
The patient manifests coolness and discoloration of the digits.
D
The patient has a body temperature of 100°F.
Question 23 Explanation: 
Coolness and discoloration of the digits signalize poor blood circulation.
Question 24
The urinary output of a patient with extracorporeal lithotripsy may be:
A
Cherry-red with late, clearer tones.
B
Orange with particles of calculi.
C
Dark red and cloudy in appearance.
D
Dark, smoky and with specific gravity.
Question 24 Explanation: 
The urine would have cherry red color due to the extracorporeal lithotripsy.
Question 25
Please mark one of the following reactions that may occur to patients with dementia due to administering Cognex (tacrine):
A
Tinnitus.
B
Urinary retention.
C
Hypoglycemia.
D
Jaundice.
Question 25 Explanation: 
Cognex may provoke drug-induced hepatitis that is manifested with jaundice.
Question 26
Please mark the most adequate indication of a necessary suctioning for a patient with blocked airway:
A
Arterial blood gases.
B
The patient's respiratory rate.
C
The change of the patient's breath's sounds.
D
Oxygen saturation.
Question 26 Explanation: 
Suctioning is the best solution for a patient with blocked airways that cannot be cleared.
Question 27
Which is the most critical symptom that ought to be reported to the physician by a patient with tuberculosis who takes Myambutol (ethambutol HCl)?
A
Gastrointestinal discomfort.
B
Changes in hearing.
C
Changes in color vision.
D
Red discoloration of bodily fluids.
Question 27 Explanation: 
The changes in color vision may appear as side effects of Myambutol.
Question 28
Which of the following is the primary cause of anemia in a patient who suffers from chronic renal failure?
A
Reduced absorption of iron.
B
Lack of intrinsic factor.
C
Destruction of erythrocytes.
D
Insufficient production of erythropoietin.
Question 28 Explanation: 
Insufficient production of erythropoietin is the primary cause of anemia in a patient who suffers from this disease.
Question 29
Please mark the priority intervention for a client who expects an intravenous pyelogram:
A
Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake before the test.
B
Inform the patient about the procedure of the test.
C
Ask the patient if they're allergic to shellfish.
D
Provide the patient with their favorite meal for dinner.
Question 29 Explanation: 
Shellfish may provoke anaphylactic reaction due to the iodine, during the test.
Question 30
What is the role of the aspirin as a medication for a patient with transient ischemic attacks?
A
To prevent cerebral anoxia.
B
To trigger coagulation.
C
To prevent headaches.
D
To keep platelets from clumping.
Question 30 Explanation: 
Aspirin prevents the platelets to clump together in order to block any possible forming of clots.
Question 31
Please mark the course of therapy that would need to be prescribed to a patient with tuberculosis:
A
Taking the prescribed medication for the rest of the patient's life.
B
Taking the prescribed medication only if needed after a re-evaluation of the patient.
C
Taking the prescribed medication for 18-24 months.
D
The patient may not need to take the prescribed medication after a period of 2 weeks.
Question 31 Explanation: 
The common medical treatment for patients with tuberculosis lasts for 18 to 24 months.
Question 32
Please mark one of the following actions that is most threatening to an 4-month-old infant:
A
Standing.
B
Crawling.
C
Switching objects from one hand to another.
D
Rolling over.
Question 32 Explanation: 
An infant at this age may face injuries due to rolling over from beds that are not protected with rails.
Question 33
Which of the following is the most adequate instruction for the Dilantin (phenytoin) therapy prescribed to a newly discharged patient with mal seizures?
A
"Remember to minimize the carbohydrates in your diet".
B
"The prescribed medication can cause dental staining".
C
"You will need frequent CBSs".
D
"The prescribed medication can cause fatigue".
Question 33 Explanation: 
The patient will have to undergo regular CBSs due to the side-effects of the Dilantin, such as aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis.
Question 34
What should a nurse have in mind as an order regarding a newborn male patient with hypospadias?
A
The child patient needs to be circumcised in order to obtain voiding.
B
The child patient mustn't undergo surgery before turning 6.
C
The child patient will undergo surgical correction by the time he is 6 months old.
D
The child patient mustn't be circumcised.
Question 34 Explanation: 
A child patient who suffers from hypospadias mustn't be circumcised due to its sensitive foreskin that is used in construction.
Question 35
Please mark the type of oil that is considered inadequate for a low-cholesterol diet:
A
Sunflower oil.
B
Coconut oil.
C
Safflower oil.
D
Canola oil.
Question 35 Explanation: 
The coconut oil contains a high percentage of saturated fat which is not appropriate for a patient with elevated cholesterol levels.
Question 36
Which of the following is a characteristic of a stage III Alzheimer's disease?
A
Burdened communication.
B
Sleepwalking.
C
Memory loss.
D
The patient is unable to recognize familiar objects.
Question 36 Explanation: 
In this stage of the Alzheimer's disease, the patient fails to recognize familiar objects.
Question 37
Please mark the most adequate instruction for the therapy of Cortisone (cortisone) to a patient with systemic Lupus erythematosus :
A
"Remember to take the medication half an hour before having a meal".
B
"Report the doctor for any changes in appetite and weight".
C
"Remember to put sunglasses prior to sun exposure in order to prevent cataracts".
D
"Remember to schedule an influenza vaccine".
Question 37 Explanation: 
The patient, whose therapy includes steroid medications, must take an influenza vaccine every year.
Question 38
What should a nurse do to prevent contractures of a patient with an above-the-knee amputation?
A
Elevate the patient's leg on two pillows.
B
Place the affected leg between two trochanter rolls.
C
Use shock blocks to keep the foot of the bed elevated.
D
Put the patient in a prone position two times a day for 15-30 minutes.
Question 38 Explanation: 
A patient with an above-the-knee amputation would avoid contractures if placed in a prone position, twice a day for 1-30 minutes.
Question 39
When do most children get all of their primary teeth? 
A
By the age of 12 months.
B
By the age of 18 months.
C
By the age of 24 months.
D
By the age of 30 months.
Question 39 Explanation: 
By the age of 30 months, the infants should get their primary teeth.
Question 40
What should a nurse do if they notice that a radioactive implant is lying in the bed of a patient who suffers from cervical cancer?
A
The nurse should put the implant in a biohazard container and return it to the lab.
B
The nurse should encourage the patient to reinsert the implant.
C
The nurse should pick up the implant by using tongs and return it to a lead-lined container.
D
The nurse should discard the implant.
Question 40 Explanation: 
A radioactive implant ought to be picked up and returned to the container.
Question 41
What instruction should a nurse give to a newly discharged patient who has undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A
"Avoid a tub bath for 48 hours".
B
"You should expect clay-colored stools".
C
"You may experience lower abdominal pain in the following week".
D
"You are allowed to have your regular diet in the following 24 hours".
Question 41 Explanation: 
The patient ought to avoid a tub bath in the following 48 hours after having a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
Question 42
What should the school nurse have in mind when a high school student who has suffered mononucleosis returns to school? 
A
The nurse should advise the patient to continue his antibiotic therapy in the next 6 month.
B
The nurse should advise the patient to have a snack twice a day in order to avoid hypoglycemia.
C
The nurse should advise the patient to avoid contact sports activities for several months.
D
The nurse should advise the patient to increase their daily fluid intake.
Question 42 Explanation: 
A patient who has suffered mononucleosis should refrain from any contact sports activities in order to avoid any possible injuries of the spleen.
Question 43
Please mark the adequate medication schedule for Creon (pancrelipase) that ought to be prescribed to a 6-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis:
A
The medication should be taken at bedtime.
B
The medication should be taken twice a day.
C
The medication should be taken with meals or snacks.
D
The medication should be taken in the morning, every day.
Question 43 Explanation: 
The Creon is a replacement for the pancreatic enzyme and should be given along with meals and snacks.
Question 44
Please mark the diet which is most rich in B12, prescribed to a patient with pernicious anemia:
A
Peanut butter, raisins, molasses.
B
Meat, eggs, dairy products.
C
Broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower.
D
Bran cereals, shrimps, legumes.
Question 44 Explanation: 
A diet based on meat, eggs, dairy products is most rich in vitamin B12.
Question 45
Please mark the most adequate exercise schedule for a patient with hypertension who started with aerobic exercises:
A
1 hour, twice a week.
B
1 hour, four times a week.
C
45 minutes, twice a week.
D
20-30 minutes, three times a week.
Question 45 Explanation: 
The aerobic exercises for the patient should be practiced three times a week for 20-30 minutes.
Question 46
What action should a nurse take when caring for a patient who suffers from breast cancer and has undergone a right total mastectomy?
A
The nurse should put the patient's right arm across her body.
B
The nurse should keep the patient's right arm on the bed beside her.
C
The nurse should put the right arm of the patient in a separate sling.
D
The nurse should elevate the right arm of the patient on pillows.
Question 46 Explanation: 
The patient who has undergone total mastectomy should have their arm elevated on pillows in order to ease the lymph drainage.
Question 47
Which of the following indications is most likely to occur to a child patient with petit mal seizures?
A
Abrupt muscle contractions in short intervals.
B
Abrupt decline of the muscle tone.
C
Rapid, bilateral jerking movements.
D
A brief lapse in consciousness.
Question 47 Explanation: 
Petit mal seizures are most often indicated by a brief lapse in consciousness.
Question 48
Please mark the medication which you consider to provoke the development of Parkinsonian symptoms:
A
Depakote (divalproex sodium)
B
Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
C
Zyprexa (olanzapine)
D
Cogentin (benztropine mesylate)
Question 48 Explanation: 
The side effects of the Zyprexa (olanzapine), which is an antipsychotic medication is the development of Parkinsonian symptoms.
Question 49
Please mark the most appropriate activity for a 12-year-old patient who suffers from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis:
A
Solving crossword puzzles.
B
Playing soft-pitch softball.
C
Swimming.
D
Playing video games.
Question 49 Explanation: 
A child patient with rheumatoid arthritis should practice exercises with light, passive resistance such as swimming.
Question 50
What does 2.5% of glycosylated hemoglobin of an adult patient with diabetes mellitus show?
A
The patient can proceed with a high-calorie diet.
B
The patient keeps the diabetes under control.
C
The patient's insulin dose needs to be adjusted.
D
The patient has no diligent control over her health condition.
Question 50 Explanation: 
This percentage of the glycosylated hemoglobin shows that the patient has control over their diabetes.
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