Medical Assistant NCMA Practice Test

Medical Assistant NCMA Practice Test

The NCCT Medical Assistant Practice Test is a multiple-choice examination that will prepare you to score on your exam day and get your professional certificate.

The test contains 75 questions that cover major areas such as pharmacology, medical procedures, anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, and medical office management.

Medical Assistant NCMA Practice Test

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Question 1
A patient is having sensory and perceptual problems that harm his right homonymous hemianopia due to a stroke. What should the assistant have in mind when putting a tray in front of the patient?
A
Remind the patient to look all over the tray before leaving the room.
B
Stay with the client and be careful not to let unilateral neglect.
C
Place the food and objects in the patient's left visual field.
D
Place the food on the right side of the tray.
Question 1 Explanation: 
The nurse should stay with the client and be careful not to let unilateral neglect.
Question 2
How should a patient with urinary incontinence be taken care of when they have redness and skin excoriation at the perianal area?
A
The patient must be kept clean and dry.
B
The patient must be placed under the client’s buttocks.
C
The nurse must check the bed for wetness and always keep it dry.
D
The nurse must check to make sure the linen is always dry.
Question 2 Explanation: 
The nurse must keep the patient clean and dry.
Question 3
Please mark the common position for cleansing enema prior to colonoscopy:
A
Prone
B
Supine
C
Dorsal Recumbent
D
Simis left lateral
Question 3 Explanation: 
Simis left lateral is a position that terminates into the rectum in the left position.
Question 4
If a patient has a cold and takes medication that may affect her equilibrium, what precautionary measures are appropriate?
A
The patient should be offered extra servings of meat or other protein to stabilize their balance.
B
The patient should be offered a multivitamin daily to have their red blood cell levels built.
C
The patient should be ambulated carefully to the restroom with assistance as needed.
D
The patient should be offered extra servings of protein to stabilize balance.
Question 4 Explanation: 
The patient should be ambulated carefully to the restroom with assistance as needed.
Question 5
Please mark the indication of decreased muscle strength:
A
Extended arms begin to drift down after a few minutes
B
Leg muscles can support body weight
C
Bilateral hand grasps are firm
D
Leg force against the medical assistant’s hand is very resisting
Question 5 Explanation: 
Extended arms begin to drift down after a few minutes are a sign of decreased muscle strength.
Question 6
Mark the abnormal characteristic of a urine specimen of 250 mL of cloudy, light yellow, odorless:
A
odor
B
clarity
C
amount
D
color
Question 6 Explanation: 
Normal urine is pale yellow, amber or straw-colored.
Question 7
Please mark the most adequate next step od a worker that is not comfortable with their job duties in a long- term facility during a two-week preceptor program:
A
Ask for additional orientation time
B
Do the best in the work setting
C
Discuss with the HR
D
Resign from the job
Question 7 Explanation: 
The worker should ask for additional orientation time.
Question 8
Please mark the most common symptom of myocardial infraction (MI):
A
Edema
B
Chest pain
C
Dyspnea
D
Palpitation
Question 8 Explanation: 
Chest pain is the most common symptom of MI.
Question 9
Retraining and a new competency evaluation program are required for:
A
medical assistants who never worked for two consecutive years
B
medical assistants who never worked for over a year
C
medical assistants who have worked abroad
D
medical assistants who never worked but only volunteered
Question 9 Explanation: 
Retraining and a new competency evaluation program are required for medical assistants who never worked for two consecutive years.
Question 10
Please mark the right description of dyspnea:
A
The patient is seated up and leaned over a table with a pillow.
B
The patient is on high backrest with a pillow on the back.
C
The patient is instructed to hyperextend the neck while on high backrest.
D
The patient's head is positioned at a 90° angle.
Question 10 Explanation: 
The patient is seated up and leaned over a table with a pillow.
Question 11
Please mark the description of the phrase "Anatomical position":
A
Anatomic directional terms that are used in reference to the anatomical position
B
The position/placement of body parts in relation to one another
C
A and B
D
None of the above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Both A and B are correct.
Question 12
Please mark the possible jeopardizing of the confidentiality of computerized medical records available at a nurse’s station:
A
Periodical changing of computer access passwords
B
Prevention of unidentified healthcare workers to see computer records
C
Sharing passwords for computer access with colleagues who have forgotten their own passwords
D
Logging out of all computer screens before leaving
Question 12 Explanation: 
Sharing passwords for computer access with colleagues who have forgotten their own passwords should not be done in order to keep confidentiality.
Question 13
A with an arm cast suffers pain and complains of decreased motion and circulation. Please mark the needed intervention in this case:
A
To report observations to the nurse
B
To massage the arm
C
To remove the case
D
To prescribe painkillers
Question 13 Explanation: 
Observations should be reported to the nurse.
Question 14
The blood vessels where the cellular of nutrients and by-products takes place are called:
A
capillary blood vessels
B
arterial blood vessels
C
venous blood vessels
Question 14 Explanation: 
The blood vessels where the cellular of nutrients and by-products takes place are called capillary blood vessels.
Question 15
Please mark the indicator of inappropriate application of restraint by a medical assistant:
A
Restraint straps that are safely secured to the side rails
B
Jacket restraint straps that do not tighten
C
A safety knot in the restraint straps
D
Jacket restraint secured so that two fingers can slide easily between the restraint
Question 15 Explanation: 
Restraint straps that are safely secured to the side rails are a sign of inappropriate application.
Question 16
In some Asian cultures, silence is:
A
a sign of disrespect
B
a sign of disagreement
C
a sign of respect
D
a sign of privacy
Question 16 Explanation: 
In some Asian cultures, silence is a sign of respect.
Question 17
Please mark the way a nurse assistant should document the output if a patient is incontinent:
A
The nurse assistant should record on the output side of the I&O sheet when the bed is wet.
B
The nurse assistant should review the client’s intake and record the amount in the I&O sheet.
C
The nurse assistant shouldn't document nor measure.
D
The nurse assistant should inform the nurse about the patient's condition.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The nurse assistant should record on the output side of the I&O sheet when the bed is wet.
Question 18
Please mark the technique for interviewing a 90-year-old patient:
A
One should speak slowly
B
One should use a low- pitched voice
C
One should make pauses between words
D
One should reinforce words with mimics
Question 18 Explanation: 
One should use a low- pitched voice during this type of interview.
Question 19
What is the recommended activity to a severely agitated elderly patient?
A
Trivial pursuits
B
Competitive sports
C
Daily walks
D
Bingo
Question 19 Explanation: 
Daily walks are the recommended activity for this type of patient.
Question 20
Please mark the correct statement about ostomy care:
A
Ostomy care and changing od pouches are done under a doctor’s order.
B
Ostomy care is done under sterile technique.
C
Ostomy care can be provided by patients themselves.
D
Ostomy care doesn't prevent normal defecation.
Question 20 Explanation: 
Patients can perform this procedure by themselves after a thorough health teaching.
Question 21
The collection bag for ostomy care should be changed 5 times per day. is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 21 Explanation: 
The collection bag must be changed when it is full or when the adhering seal is broken.
Question 22
When the nurse assistant is on break time, family and friends are allowed to visit the unit while they are working. Is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 22 Explanation: 
Even if the nurse assistant is on break time, family and friends are not allowed to visit the unit while they are working.
Question 23
A chemo-therapy patient feels depressed and expresses concerns about impending hair loss. How should a nurse assistant react?
A
The nurse assistant should discuss hair loss 2 times per week.
B
The nurse assistant should provide more info about chemotherapy.
C
The nurse assistant should acknowledge that hair loss is hard and talk more with the patient.
D
The nurse assistant should suggest hats or wigs.
Question 23 Explanation: 
The nurse assistant should acknowledge that hair loss is hard and talk more with the patient.
Question 24
According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the medical assistant must prioritize the most important task or _____________________.
A
respond to calls in the morning
B
work night shifts regularly
C
take care of patients that are most critical
D
eliminate non-critical cases
Question 24 Explanation: 
According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the medical assistant must prioritize the most important task or take care of patients that are most critical.
Question 25
Please mark the condition of the reading if the cuff is too small during monitoring of blood pressure:
A
Lower than the expected
B
Higher than the expected
C
Low systolic
D
High systolic
Question 25 Explanation: 
The reading will show that blood pressure is higher than the expected.
Question 26
What should a nurse assistant answer to an elderly patient from whom cancer diagnosis was withheld upon request of her close family?
A
They should answer that they don't know.
B
They should answer that they have no information but will find out.
C
They should answer that there is nothing to worry about.
D
They should answer that the patient should ask the doctor.
Question 26 Explanation: 
They should answer that they have no information but will find out.
Question 27
What can a nurse assistant do during a patient with constant oxygen therapy?
A
They should keep connecting tubing secure and free of kinks.
B
They should turn the oxygen on and off.
C
They should decide what device to use.
D
They should start the oxygen.
Question 27 Explanation: 
They should keep connecting tubing secure and free of kinks.
Question 28
Please mark the most effective action for in improving transcultural communications with cancer patients and their families:
A
Listening to their concerns and establishing a rapport
B
Maintaining eye contact
C
Focusing on verbal communication skills
D
Using touch to express care
Question 28 Explanation: 
Listening to their concerns and establishing a rapport
Question 29
Please mark the example of a direct question:
A
What are your plans for this summer?
B
You said that you can’t play.
C
What will you do when you get at the airport?
D
Do you like my new hairstyle?
Question 29 Explanation: 
Do you like my new hairstyle?- it must have yes/ no answer.
Question 30
If a patient with delirium reports seeing things that don't exist around them, the nurse assistant should:
A
that they understand that they're scared but that there is nothing around them.,
B
that they have hallucinations.
C
that they also see the things but feel that they're harmless.
D
offer to give a sedative pill.
Question 30 Explanation: 
If a patient with delirium reports seeing things that don't exist around them, the nurse assistant should that they understand that they're scared but that there is nothing around them.,
Question 31
To prevent foot drop in a leg with a cast, the foot should be__________________.
A
supported with 45 degrees of flexion
B
supported with 90 degrees of flexion
C
bed rested
D
covered with a stocking to provide warmth
Question 31 Explanation: 
To prevent foot drop in a leg with a cast, the foot should be supported with 90 degrees of flexion.
Question 32
What is the best intervention for a patient that has a hearing impairment in order to prevent sensory overload but meet their needs?
A
Family members should stay with the patient.
B
An overnight light should be kept at all times
C
The TV or radio should be always on
D
The conversation at the bedside should be directed to the patient.
Question 32 Explanation: 
The conversation at the bedside should be directed to the patient.
Question 33
Please mark the function of the endocrine system:
A
Communicate with other body systems
B
Coordinate and control body functions
C
Both are correct
Question 33 Explanation: 
Both are correct
Question 34
Please mark the area of the anterior shoulder:
A
above the upper chest (front of shoulder)
B
between the neck and shoulder (the top of the shoulder)
C
on the back (the shoulder blade)
D
on the deltoid area of the upper arm (the area on the side of the shoulder)
Question 34 Explanation: 
The anterior shoulder is located above the upper chest (front of shoulder).
Question 35
Please mark the location of the cephalic vein:
A
On the hand
B
In the antecubital area, near the center of the arm
C
In the antecubital area, on the outside of the arm
D
In the antecubital area, on the inner side of the arm
Question 35 Explanation: 
The cephalic vein is in the antecubital area, on the outside of the arm.
Question 36
According to the Patient Bill of Rights, phlebotomists may discuss anything related to the condition or treatment of a patient with other parties except the patient or members of the healthcare team. Is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 36 Explanation: 
No, that's a breach of confidentiality. According to the Patient Bill of Rights, phlebotomists must not discuss anything related to the condition or treatment of a patient with anyone except the patient or members of the healthcare team.
Question 37
Please mark the meaning of the word myringotomy:
A
Placing an incision into the muscles
B
Placing an opening into the tympanic membrane
C
Removing the eardrum
D
None of the above
Question 37 Explanation: 
Myringotomy is placing an opening into the tympanic membrane.
Question 38
They are very active in the process of phagocytosis of bacteria and comprise about 50- 70% of all white blood cells. They are found in large number in pus. How are these called?
A
Basophils
B
Eosinophils
C
Monocytes
D
Neutrophils
Question 38 Explanation: 
They are called neutrophils.
Question 39
What type of consent is informed consent?
A
It is a consent given by a patient that allows medical examination and treatment.
B
It is a consent given when a patient is tested for HIV.
C
It is a consent given when a patient is unconscious.
Question 39 Explanation: 
It is a consent given by a patient that allows medical examination and treatment.
Question 40
Please mark the name of the superficial veins located on the foot:
A
Lesser saphenous vein
B
Greater saphenous vein
C
Dorsal venous arch
D
All of the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
All of these veins are superficial veins located on the foot.
Question 41
If a lab specimen planned for serum studies appears wrong, i.e. cloudy and milky, this might mean that:
A
the patient ate food full of fats
B
there might be bacteria
C
the patient was not in a basal state
D
All of the above
Question 41 Explanation: 
All of the above are correct in this case.
Question 42
What should a medical assistant do if a hematoma develops while collecting a blood specimen?
A
They should tighten the tourniquet.
B
They should measure the hematoma.
C
They should adjust the bevel of the needle.
D
They should loosen the tourniquet, remove the needle, apply pressure, then check if the bleeding has stopped.
Question 42 Explanation: 
They should loosen the tourniquet, remove the needle, apply pressure, then check if the bleeding has stopped.
Question 43
Please mark the special precautions for drawing a blood specimen for a blood alcohol level:
A
Correct identifying of a patient
B
Correct labeling and packaging of the sample
C
No usage of alcohol wipes to prep the site
D
All of the above
Question 43 Explanation: 
All of the above are correct
Question 44
What type of consent is the immediate treatment necessary to prevent permanent injury or to perform the lifesaving treatment, allowed only in emergency situations?
A
Good Samaritan act
B
Informed consent
C
Implied consent
Question 44 Explanation: 
Implied consent is the immediate treatment is necessary to prevent permanent injury or to perform the lifesaving treatment.
Question 45
Please mark the element that refers to the acceptable method of correcting written mistakes:
A
Writing the corrected information next to the struck-out word
B
Writing the corrected information above the struck-out word
C
Making one line going through the incorrect information
D
All of the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
All of the above are correct
Question 46
Please mark the elements that can be found of equipment check forms:
A
Tachometer readings and lot expiration dates
B
Vacuum strengths
C
Daily refrigerator temperatures
D
All of the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
All of the above can be found on equipment check forms.
Question 47
Please mark the step that needs to be taken next when a patient that needs to transfer from bed to a wheelchair complains of feeling lightheaded and dizzy:
A
The medical assistant should return the client to the supine position and apply a safety vest.
B
The medical assistant should lift the client quickly into the wheelchair.
C
The medical assistant should have the client sit at the side of the bed for a few minutes while supporting his back and shoulders.
D
The medical assistant should ask the client to dangle at the bedside.
Question 47 Explanation: 
The medical assistant should have the client sit at the side of the bed for a few minutes while supporting his back and shoulders.
Question 48
How do you make the plural form of the word "larynx"?
A
You add -s at the end of the word.
B
You change the -x into a -g and then add -es.
C
You change the -x into a -g and then add -s.
Question 48 Explanation: 
You change the -x into a -g and then add -es.
Question 49
What may increase the depressive effects of Depacon?
A
Alcohol
B
Taking Clonazepam in combination with Depacon
C
Both A and B are correct
Question 49 Explanation: 
Taking alchohol and Clonazepam with Depacon can increase depressive effects.
Question 50
Please mark the brand name of hydroxyquinoline:
A
Quixin
B
Plaquenil
C
Quinapril
D
Quinate
Question 50 Explanation: 
Plaquenil is the brand name of hydroxyquinoline.
Question 51
Please mark the definition of mode of transmission?
A
Mode of transmission is a route of pathogenic transmission, from one host to another.
B
Mode of transmission is a method of transmitting the information.
C
Mode of transmission are categories of isolation.
Question 51 Explanation: 
Mode of transmission is a route of pathogenic transmission, from one host to another.
Question 52
Please mark the meaning of the suffix -poiesis:
A
Administration
B
Destruction
C
Formation
D
All of the above
Question 52 Explanation: 
The suffix-poiesis means formation.
Question 53
What PPE is required when performing phlebotomy?
A
Sterile Gown
B
Gloves
C
Respirator
D
Face mask
Question 53 Explanation: 
Gloves are always required when performing phlebotomy.
Question 54
What does the word balanitis mean?
A
Inflammation of the eyelids
B
Inflammation of the glans penis
C
Inflammation of the lips
D
None of the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
Balanitis means inflammation of the glans penis.
Question 55
Please mark the element which is not in the circulatory system:
A
Aorta
B
Veins
C
Cerebrum
D
Arteries
Question 55 Explanation: 
The cerebrum is the part of the brain that processes sensory input and directs the body’s voluntary movements.
Question 56
What are Universal Precautions?
A
They are guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection from any source of body fluid, except sweat, in healthcare settings.
B
They are guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by a known source of infection.
C
They are guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by blood and body fluids in healthcare settings.
Question 56 Explanation: 
They are guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by blood and body fluids in healthcare settings.
Question 57
If a medical assistant accidentally injures themselves with a needle, should they report the injury to the supervisor?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 57 Explanation: 
Yes, the injury must be reported as needle sticks must be reported immediately after the occurrence of the injury.
Question 58
Milking is a term used to describe scooping the blood with the capillary collection device, instead of letting it fall on its own. Is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 58 Explanation: 
Milking is a term used to describe a squeezing and pulling action used with a finger puncture.
Question 59
Please mark the drugs that shouldn't be used as diuretics:
A
Mannitol
B
Acetazolamide
C
Albuterol
D
Both A and B
Question 59 Explanation: 
Acetazolamide and Mannitol shouldn't be used as diuretics.
Question 60
During specimen examination, testing is completed in the phase known as:
A
analytical
B
preanalytical
C
post-analytical
D
None of the above.
Question 60 Explanation: 
During specimen examination, testing is completed in the phase known as analytical.
Question 61
Please mark the appropriate agent and dosing for a patient that's been just diagnosed with gout:
A
Allopurinol, 200 mg PO, qd
B
Alitretinoin, 0.1% topical gel, qid
C
Hydroxycobalamin, 500mcg, PO, qd
D
Acarbose, 100mg, PO, tid
Question 61 Explanation: 
The right agent and dosage is Allopurinol, 200 mg PO, qd.
Question 62
What does a yellow diamond with number 4 indicate according to the hazard identification system?
A
Number 4 indicates no hazard.
B
Number 4 indicates a moderate hazard.
C
Number 4 indicates a mild hazard.
D
Number 4 indicates extreme hazard.
Question 62 Explanation: 
Number 4 indicates an extreme hazard.
Question 63
One of the adverse reactions of the interferon-beta injections is blood dyscrasias. Is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 63 Explanation: 
Arrhythmias, blood abnormalities, and intestinal obstructions are the most serious reported side effects of interferon-beta injections.
Question 64
Please mark what may cause negative blood culture results:
A
Too little blood collected
B
Air injected into a bottle for anaerobic collection
C
A sample that's been contaminated with iodine
D
All of the above
Question 64 Explanation: 
All of the above may cause false negative blood culture results.
Question 65
Please mark the accurate description of clinical trials:
A
A Phase III trial compares a new treatment with an established treatment and it is commonly much larger than phases I or II trial.
B
A phase I trial is usually very small (N<30) and is focused on determining the safe dose range for a new drug.
C
A phase II trial is often larger than a phase I trial and it is focused on determining if a new drug is effective enough to test in a phase III trial and to delineate adverse effects.
D
All of the statements are correct.
Question 65 Explanation: 
All of the statements are correct regarding clinical trials.
Question 66
Please mark the necessary information in the requisition forms for patients:
A
gender
B
full name
C
hospital ID
D
Both B and C
Question 66 Explanation: 
Hospital ID number and the patient's full name are mandatory information.
Question 67
Please mark asthma- treating bronchodilators:
A
Isoproterenol
B
Albuterol
C
Isoproterenol
D
Both A and B
Question 67 Explanation: 
Albuterol and Isoproterenol are asthma- treating bronchodilators.
Question 68
Please mark the tests that require light protection for the specimen:
A
Folate level
B
Bilirubin
C
Vitamin B12
D
All of the above
Question 68 Explanation: 
All of the above require light protection of the specimen.
Question 69
Please mark the person who is classified as a laboratory director has extensive training in clinical and anatomical laboratory interpretations and a medical degree:
A
Pathologist
B
Phlebotomist
C
Medical Assistant
D
Lab Assistant
Question 69 Explanation: 
That person is a lab assistant.
Question 70
Please mark the requirement(s) of the Patients' Bill of Rights:
A
protect the patients' confidentiality
B
don't openly discuss patients' condition
C
don't openly discuss sensitive information without patients' permission
D
All of the above
Question 70 Explanation: 
All of the above are requirements of the Patients' Bill of Rights.
Question 71
Please mark the usual angle for a venous puncture:
A
45 degrees
B
10- 20 degrees
C
15- 30 degrees
D
5- 10 degrees
Question 71 Explanation: 
the venous puncture should be performed at 15- 30 degrees.
Question 72
What does the procedure for the application of a tourniquet advise?
A
A tourniquet should not be applied without oxygen support to prevent hemoconcentration.
B
A tourniquet should not be applied for longer than 5 minutes to prevent hemoconcentration.
C
A tourniquet should not be applied for longer than one minute to prevent hemoconcentration.
D
None of the above
Question 72 Explanation: 
It is advised that a tourniquet should not be applied for longer than one minute to prevent hemoconcentration.
Question 73
Please mark the disadvantage(s( of using the radial artery for arterial puncture:
A
The radial artery is small.
B
The radial artery is not easily palpable.
C
The radial artery is close to the medial nerve.
D
All of the above.
Question 73 Explanation: 
The disadvantage is that the radial artery is small.
Question 74
Please mark the warnings for tetracycline:
A
It shouldn't be taken with an antacid.
B
It shouldn' be taken with milk due to possible stomach discomfort.
C
Sunlight should be avoided.
D
Regular blood testing is required during prolonged therapy.
E
All of the above
Question 74 Explanation: 
All of the warnings above are appropriate.
Question 75
Please mark the drug(s) for treating Parkinson's disease:
A
Liotrix
B
Zoledronic acid
C
Entacapone
D
Albuterol
Question 75 Explanation: 
Entacapone is the only drug of the listed for Parkinson's disease.
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