VTNE Practice Test (Veterinary Technician Exam)

VTNE Practice Test (Veterinary Technician Exam)

Prepare for the Veterinary Technician National Exam with these 50 review questions.

The American Association of Veterinary State Boards (AAVSB) administers the VTNE, which is a 3-hour-long computer-based test consisting of 170 multiple-choice questions.

All future vet techs need to obtain this certification.

This VTNE test prep covers all 9 areas of the official national exam!

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VTNE Practice Test (Veterinary Technician Exam)

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Question 1
A veterinary technician is performing IPPV (intermittent positive-pressure ventilation) on an anesthetized patient. In the process, the reservoir bag has suddenly collapsed due to lack of oxygen. In order to continue providing mechanical ventilation to the patient, the technician needs to press down the pressure relief valve to let in gas. Would this be a correct course of action in the described situation?
A
Yes, this is necessary in order to quickly continue performing IPPV
B
No, in this way oxygen will enter directly into the breathing circuit at a higher pressure, which is dangerous for the patient
C
This is a common last-resort option in such a situation and it most of the time leads to no complications
D
None of the above
Question 2
Using an anesthetic chamber has negative sides that concern both the patient and the veterinary staff. Which of the following are such examples?
A
The patient is subjected to an airway that not protected
B
More oxygen and inhalant must be used
C
The procedure is hygienic
D
A and B
Question 2 Explanation: 
The negative sides of using an anesthetic chamber that concern both the patient and the veterinary staff include the fact that the patient is subjected to an airway that not protected and more oxygen and inhalant must be used.
Question 3
Which of the following is a function of carbon dioxide in mammals.
A
It initiates the respiratory drive
B
It is responsible for the gag reflex
C
More carbon dioxide in the lungs pushes the breathing reflex into action
D
A and B
Question 3 Explanation: 
It initiates the respiratory drive, by building up in the lungs.
Question 4
Please identify which of the following is a function of pre-medicating as a step in the anesthetic process.
A
Makes the anesthesia more effective
B
Helps lower the patient's anxiety
C
Causes a lower cost to the veterinarian
D
None of the above
Question 4 Explanation: 
The function of pre-medicating as a step in the anesthetic process is to relax the patient.
Question 5
Please identify which of the following is correct about the time between the administration of the pre-anesthetic drug and the induction.
A
In case of an IV administration, the best interval would be between 50 and 60 minutes
B
In case of an subcutaneous administration, the best interval would be between 30 and 45 minutes
C
In case of an intramuscular administration, the best interval would be between 30 and 45 minutes
D
None of the above
Question 5 Explanation: 
In case of an subcutaneous administration, the best interval would be between 30 and 45 minutes
Question 6
Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for measuring blood pressure that is a noninvasive blood pressure measurement?
A
Using a blood pressure cuff and an oscillometric monitor
B
Digital palpation of arterial pulses
C
Both of the above
D
None of the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
Both digital palpation of arterial pulses and using a blood pressure cuff and an oscillometric monitor are examples of noninvasive blood pressure measurement.
Question 7
Which of the following can be used, when dosed differently, as both an anesthetic and an analgesic?
A
Tizanidine
B
Romifidine
C
Lofexidine
D
Ketamine
Question 7 Explanation: 
Ketamine, when dosed differently, can be used as both an anesthetic and an analgesic.
Question 8
A reddish or purple in color spot can be observed on the skin and it is caused by a blood leakage. This is called...
A
a petechia.
B
a papiloma.
C
a lump.
D
None of the above
Question 8 Explanation: 
This is called a petechia.
Question 9
Please indicate which of the following is the most common factor in psittacine mortality.
A
Avian Influenza
B
Avian polyomavirus
C
Avian Bornavirus
D
None of the above
Question 9 Explanation: 
Avian polyomavirus is the most common factor in psittacine mortality.
Question 10
A distal carpal bandage needs to be applied to a horse. This bandage would be applied to...
A
the neck.
B
the head.
C
the lower limb.
Question 10 Explanation: 
This bandage would be applied to the lower limb.
Question 11
The technical term to call a male ferret is...
A
kid.
B
jack.
C
cattle.
D
hob.
Question 11 Explanation: 
The technical term to call a male ferret is hob.
Question 12
A disease that is infectious in laboratory rabbits and is usually caused by orthopoxvirus is called...
A
rabbit calicivirus.
B
rabbit influenza.
C
rabbit hepatitis.
D
rabbit pox.
Question 12 Explanation: 
A disease that is infectious in laboratory rabbits and is usually caused by orthopoxvirus is called rabbit pox.
Question 13
Please identify which of the following behaviors is considered a disorder and can potentially be caused by physiologic factors.
A
A refusal to eat certain food
B
A prolonged eating time
C
Pica
D
None of the above
Question 13 Explanation: 
Pica is considered a disorder and can potentially be caused by physiologic factors.
Question 14
Colic in horses is caused by which of the following?
A
A piece of intestine has twisted around itself
B
The ingesta does not flow freely through the intestinal tract
C
Harmful food items have been ingested
D
None of the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Colic in horses occurs when the ingesta does not flow freely through the intestinal tract.
Question 15
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires from veterinary centers to review and update their safety plans...
A
annually.
B
every other year.
C
only in cases when changes take place.
D
None of the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires from veterinary centers to review and update their safety plans in case when changes take place.
Question 16
The new Needle stick Safety Prevention Act has consequences for veterinary centers. Please identify which of the following is a correct example of this.
A
It makes sharps injury log mandatory for veterinary practices that employ more than 10 people
B
It makes sharps injury log no longer mandatory for veterinary practices
C
It makes sharps injury log mandatory for veterinary practices that employ more than 5 people
Question 16 Explanation: 
"It makes sharps injury log mandatory for veterinary practices that employ more than 10 people" is a correct example of this.
Question 17
Accumulated minerals from saliva and plaque on the teeth enamel is called...
A
periodontitis.
B
tartar.
C
cavities.
D
None of the above
Question 17 Explanation: 
Accumulated minerals from saliva and plaque on the teeth enamel is called tartar.
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a reason for the inclusion of fluoride in tooth pastes?
A
It makes the teeth enamel stronger
B
It makes teeth more sensitive
C
It discourages the formation of plaque
D
All of the above are correct
Question 18 Explanation: 
Fluoride in toothpaste makes teeth less sensitive.
Question 19
What is an appropriate way to prevent a situation where the patient aspirates debris when dental prophylaxis is performed?
A
Position the patient slightly downward
B
Use a gauze
C
Properly position the inflated cuffed endotracheal tube
D
All of the above
Question 19 Explanation: 
All of the above will serve this purpose.
Question 20
What purpose can a correctly filled, thorough medical record serve in a court case?
A
Evidence against a charge of professional incompetence
B
Evidence against a charge of professional negligence
C
Evidence against a charge of corrupt practices
D
None of the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
It can serve as evidence against a charge of professional negligence.
Question 21
Hypsodont refers to which part of a horse?
A
A gland
B
An internal organ
C
A bone type
D
A tooth type
Question 21 Explanation: 
Hypsodont is a tooth type in a horse.
Question 22
Please identify the correct position of the buccal tooth in a horse.
A
in the front of the oral cavity
B
in the back of the oral cavity
C
in the area of the cheeks
D
None of the above
Question 22 Explanation: 
The buccal tooth in a horse is in the area of the cheeks.
Question 23
When there is a variation in the intensity of the X-rays from the anode, the result is called...
A
anode differentiation effect.
B
anode ray variation.
C
anode heel effect.
D
None of the above
Question 23 Explanation: 
When there is a variation in the intensity of the X-rays from the anode, the result is called anode heel effect.
Question 24
Fluoroscopy is a likely procedure to be used in...
A
surgery.
B
myelograms.
C
post-operative care.
D
All of the above
Question 24 Explanation: 
Fluoroscopy is a likely procedure to be used in myelograms.
Question 25
The computerized x-ray diagnostic technique is called...
A
radiologic imagery.
B
computed tomography (CT).
C
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
D
None of the above
Question 25 Explanation: 
The computerized x-ray diagnostic technique is called computed tomography (CT).
Question 26
For radiographic imaging of small patients including birds and reptiles, which of the following positions is most commonly used?
A
Supine position
B
Dorsoventral
C
Dorsal recumbancy
D
Prone position
Question 26 Explanation: 
In this case, the most common position is dorsoventral.
Question 27
Increasing the value of milliampere seconds will have what kind of a result on the radiographic film.
A
it will increase the blacks overall
B
it will increase the whites overall
C
it will have no effect
D
None of the above
Question 27 Explanation: 
Increasing the value of milliampere seconds will have no result on the radiographic film.
Question 28
Which of the following refers to a part of the x-ray tube that creates the x-ray beam?
A
The anode
B
The cathode
C
The Neutron Convertor
D
All of the above
E
A and B only
Question 28 Explanation: 
The anode and the cathode are the parts of the x-ray tube that creates the x-ray beam.
Question 29
Which of the following is a PCV value for a horse that falls outside the normal range?
A
36%
B
44%
C
51%
D
All of the above are normal values
Question 29 Explanation: 
The range of normal PCV values for a horse is 32 - 48%.
Question 30
A radiology log always includes...
A
The number of images
B
Th images size
C
The patient name and the imaged body area
D
All of the above
Question 30 Explanation: 
All of the above should be included in a radiology log.
Question 31
Leukocytosis refers to...
A
an elevated count of white blood cells.
B
presence of abnormal white blood cells.
C
a low count of white blood cells.
D
a type of white blood cells
Question 31 Explanation: 
Leukocytosis refers to an elevated count of white blood cells.
Question 32
The presence of red blood cells with abnormal sizes is called...
A
Platelet disorder
B
Anisocytosis
C
Hemolytic anemia
D
None of the above
Question 32 Explanation: 
The presence of red blood cells with abnormal sizes is called anisocytosis.
Question 33
The most common elements assayed in an electrolyte test include...
A
Calcium and Magnesium
B
Sodium and Potassium
C
Chloride and Phosphorus
D
All of the above
Question 33 Explanation: 
All of the above fall among the most common elements assayed in an electrolyte test.
Question 34
If there are deformities in the sperm such as excessively large, small or deformed heads and coiled tails, these are classified as what kind of deformities?
A
shape defects
B
primary defects
C
secondary defects
D
None of the above
Question 34 Explanation: 
These are classified as primary defects.
Question 35
Which of the following is a common blood-related finding in patients with splenic hemangiosarcoma?
A
Poikilocytosis
B
Schistocytes
C
Sickle cell anemia
D
Acanthocytes
Question 35 Explanation: 
Acanthocytes is a common blood-related finding in patients with splenic hemangiosarcoma.
Question 36
The interval between the infection by a parasite and the onset of symptoms allowing its detection is called...
A
Latent period
B
Pre-patent period
C
Post-infection period
D
Pre-detective period
Question 36 Explanation: 
The interval between the infection by a parasite and the onset of symptoms allowing its detection is called pre-patent period.
Question 37
The purpose of glycopyrrolate use is...
A
to bring the heart rate up
B
to dry secretions
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 37 Explanation: 
The purpose of glycopyrrolate use is both to bring the heart rate up and to dry secretions.
Question 38
How would the following drug intake instruction be noted in a shortened, technical form: The drug should be applied to the left eye, 2x a day, for 15 days.
A
OS q.i.d. x 15 days
B
OS b.i.d. x 15 days
C
OD b.i.d. x 15 days
D
OD q.i.d. x 15 days
Question 38 Explanation: 
OS b.i.d. x 15 days means that the drug needs to be applied to the left eye, 2x a day, for 15 days.
Question 39
A dog weighs 11 ½ lb. It needs a drug that is recommended as 10 mg per kg. If the drug tablets are 100mg each, which of the following is a correct rounded off value of how much would this dog need?
A
30 mg
B
50 mg
C
65 mg
D
100 mg
Question 40
The antiemetics work by...
A
numbing the vomiting (emetic) reflex
B
numbing the scratch reflex
C
reducing saliva production
D
None of the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
The antiemetics work by numbing the vomiting (emetic) reflex.
Question 41
Which of the following is especially at risk if arsenic poisoning occurs?
A
The lungs
B
The eyes
C
The skin
D
The liver
Question 41 Explanation: 
The liver is especially at risk if arsenic poisoning occurs.
Question 42
Neurological dysfunction follows very soon after which of the following?
A
ethylene glycol (EG) intoxication
B
carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning
C
parasites infection
D
None of the above
Question 42 Explanation: 
Neurological dysfunction follows very soon after ethylene glycol (EG) intoxication.
Question 43
Toad venom is expelled by the contraction of which of the following muscles?
A
The periglandular muscle
B
The flexor muscle
C
The plantaris muscle
D
None of the above
Question 43 Explanation: 
Toad venom is expelled by the contraction of the periglandular muscle.
Question 44
Temporary surgical sutures used in the OP to manage and manipulate the operating area are called...
A
polypropylene sutures.
B
absorbable sutures.
C
stay sutures.
D
None of the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
Temporary surgical sutures used in the OP to manage and manipulate the operating area are called stay sutures.
Question 45
Which suture type should not be used for jobs where it will be exposed?
A
Nylon suture
B
Any absorbent suture
C
Multifilament suture
D
None of the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
Multifilament suture should not be used for jobs where it will be exposed.
Question 46
Please identify which of the following is NOT a correct statement about handling a surgical gown when it comes to maintaining sterility.
A
Upon opening the packaging, the gown interior is exposed.
B
Upon opening the packaging, the gown exterior is exposed.
C
None of the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
It is correct that upon opening the packaging, the gown interior is exposed.
Question 47
What is the correct position for a patient undergoing cervical disk fenestration?
A
Lateral recumbency
B
Dorsal recumbency
C
Side-lying position
D
None of the above
Question 47 Explanation: 
Dorsal recumbency is the correct position for a patient undergoing cervical disk fenestration.
Question 48
Please identify which of the following is correct about the Mayo-Hegar surgical instrument.
A
Its purpose is to help handle curved needles in a surgical procedure
B
It can be used to cut suture material
C
A and B
D
None is correct
Question 48 Explanation: 
The Mayo-Hegar surgical instrument can be used both to cut suture material and to handle curved needles in a surgical procedure, which is its primary purpose.
Question 49
The hanging leg preparation technique involves...
A
hanging the leg of a patient from from a structure above the operating table
B
isolating an animal leg using bandages
C
disinfecting an animal leg post-operative
D
None of the above
Question 49 Explanation: 
The hanging leg preparation technique involves hanging the leg of a patient from from a structure above the operating table.
Question 50
Please identify what is the correct time to perform tail docking on a puppy.
A
At 3-5 day old
B
At 1 month old
C
At 6 months old
D
None of the above
Question 50 Explanation: 
Puppies should have their tail docked at 3-5 day old.
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