Respiratory Therapist Practice Test

Our Respiratory Therapist Practice test will help you improve your performance on test day.

We present to you 50 questions created and managed by professionals from the field which will help you prepare.

Each question contains an explanation that will support your process of learning and revision.

Respiratory Therapist Practice Test

Congratulations - you have completed Respiratory Therapist Practice Test. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Please choose the correct description of an uncompensated Thorpe tube flowmeter:
A
The needle valve moves around in a continuous manner.
B
The needle valve is proximal to the Thorpe tube.
C
The needle valve is motionless.
D
The need;e valve is distal to the Thorpe tube.
Question 1 Explanation: 
When the needle valve is proximal to the Thorpe tube, it describes an uncompensated Thorpe tube flowmeter.
Question 2
Please mark the gas used by therapists which is tasteless and nonflammable with a density of 0.1785 g/L:
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Helium
C
Nitric oxide
D
Oxygen
Question 2 Explanation: 
Hellium is the gas used by therapists which is tasteless and nonflammable with a density of 0.1785 g/L
Question 3
When a patient is on a nasal cannula at 4 L/min how much oxygen do they receive?
A
36%
B
28%
C
24%
D
40%
Question 3 Explanation: 
hen a patient is on a nasal cannula at 4 L/min they receive 36% of oxygen though this can vary if hyper or hypoventilation occurs in a patient.
Question 4
Please mark the piece of equipment that most accurately measures volume and flow:
A
Incentive spirometer
B
Respirometer
C
Pneumotachometer
D
Wet-sealed or dry-rolling spirometer
Question 4 Explanation: 
Wet-sealed and dry-rolling spirometer most accurately measure volume and flow.
Question 5
What is the result of a baffle that functions improperly on a nebulizer?
A
Aerosolized medicine escape to the surrounding environment.
B
The inline air will not flow to the nebulizer.
C
There is a quicker production of aerosol.
D
Aerosol will not be produced by the nebulizer.
Question 5 Explanation: 
If baffle functions improperly on a nebulizer, aerosolized medicine will escape to the surrounding environment.
Question 6
What is an optional piece during the initial preparations of a nebulizer treatment?
A
Reducing valve
B
Nebulizer
C
Mouthpiece of mask
D
One-way valve
Question 6 Explanation: 
A reducing valve is not mandatory when setting up a nebulizer treatment because a patient can receive treatment from a portable tank or compressor and these don't need a reducing valve.
Question 7
Please mark the statement that is not true about suctioning supplies:
A
The suction catheter is not to exceed one-half of the tracheal tube's inside diameter. (ID)
B
FR signifies the French diameter scale.
C
The formula (0.5 ID mm x 3) + 2 = Fr calculates the FR
D
The suction catheter is not to exceed two-thirds of the tracheal tube's inside diameter (ID).
Question 7 Explanation: 
The following statement is wrong: The suction catheter is not to exceed two-thirds of the tracheal tube's the inside diameter (ID). A suction catheter wider than one-half of the inner diameter of the tracheal tube would over-occlude the tube.
Question 8
Please mark what the gauge will read if a Bourdon gauge flowmeter faces an obstruction at the outlet:
A
It will read lower.
B
It will be accurate.
C
It will read higher.
D
It will read accurately if upside- down.
Question 8 Explanation: 
if a Bourdon gauge flowmeter faces an obstruction at the outlet it will read higher. If there is an obstruction in the outlet, the gauge shows higher due to the reading from backpressure.
Question 9
Please mark the gas with a density of 0.1429g/L used by respiratory therapists that is nonflammable and odorless:
A
Helium
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Nitric oxide
Question 9 Explanation: 
The gas with a density of 0.1429g/L used by respiratory therapists that is nonflammable and odorless is oxygen.
Question 10
What is the reason for the incomplete inflating of a non- rebreather mask bag with patient use?
A
Malfunction of the one-way leaf valve
B
Malfunctioning of the one-way leaf valve
C
Too low liter flow into the mask
D
Too high liter flow into the mask
Question 11
What should you do when you enter the room of a patient who is on supplemental oxygen but the humidifier is bubbling while not in use?
A
You should replace the flow meter.
B
You should increase the flow of oxygen.
C
You should refill the humidifier.
D
You should perform pulse oximetry and continue rounds.
Question 11 Explanation: 
When you enter the room of a patient who is on supplemental oxygen but the humidifier is bubbling while not in use, you should replace the flow meter and this will ensure that the oxygen is completely turned off or that the right flow is being delivered to patients.
Question 12
Please mark the type of nebulizer contained in a transducer:
A
Large-volume nebulizer
B
Small-volume nebulizer
C
Ultrasonic nebulizer
D
Ventilator nebulizer
Question 12 Explanation: 
The nebulizer contained in a transducer is the ultrasonic nebulizer which is an electrically powered device that sends electrical current to a radio frequency generator that is conducted to a transducer through a cable.
Question 13
What alarm is noted with inspiration if a ventilator in pressure-limiting mode has a disconnection inline to the patient?
A
A flow rate increased.
B
A flow rate decreased.
C
Exceeded pressure limit.
D
The pressure limit would not be met.
Question 13 Explanation: 
If a ventilator in pressure-limiting mode has a disconnection inline to the patient, the pressure limit would not be met and tubing should be reattached.
Question 14
Please mark the right description of event when a patient’s aerosol is disappearing upon inspiration during a nebulizer treatment:
A
The nebulizer doesn't function properly.
B
The flow of liter exceeds the nebulizer.
C
The nebulizer can't meet the patient’s inspiratory demand.
D
The nebulizer goes over the patient’s inspiratory demand.
Question 14 Explanation: 
When a patient’s aerosol is disappearing upon inspiration during a nebulizer treatment, this indicates that the nebulizer is not capable of meeting the patient’s inspiratory demand. If the inspiratory demand is being met, the aerosol will continuously flow from the delivery device.
Question 15
Please mark the percent of oxygen received by a patient when on a nasal cannula at 2 L/min:
A
28%
B
24%
C
36%
D
40%
Question 15 Explanation: 
A patient on a nasal cannula at 2 L/min is receiving 28% oxygen, however, this percentage can vary depending on whether the patient is hyper or hypoventilating.
Question 16
What type of humidifier should be used with a non- rebreather mask?
A
HME
B
Diffuser humidifier
C
Bubble humidifier
D
Passover humidifier
Question 16 Explanation: 
A bubble humidifier should be used with a non- rebreather mask because it can achieve a humidity of 30 - 40%.
Question 17
What action should a therapist take to adjust a manometer needle that is rising to the pressure limit in the first 0.5 seconds of inspiration during an IPPB treatment?
A
Increase the flow rate.
B
Decrease the flow rate.
C
Decrease the pressure limit.
D
Increase the pressure limit.
Question 17 Explanation: 
A therapist should decrease the flow rate to adjust a manometer needle that is rising to the pressure limit in the first 0.5 seconds of inspiration during an IPPB treatment.
Question 18
Why does a bronchoscope does not function properly during a bronchoscopy although the reading of the suction pressure is accurate?
A
The secretions are too thick.
B
The bronchoscope is not clean,
C
The suction line is not properly attached.
D
The liter flow is not adequate.
Question 18 Explanation: 
A bronchoscope most probably does not function properly during a bronchoscopy, although the reading of the suction pressure is accurate, because the suction line is not properly attached.
Question 19
What kind of procedure on a 30-year-old patient who is morbidly obese and undergone an ALIF spinal fusion will be beneficial for preventing or combating atelectasis?
A
Physical therapy
B
Incentive spirometry every 2-4 hours
C
Bedside spirogram on a daily basis
D
CPAP at bedtime
Question 19 Explanation: 
Incentive spirometry every 2-4 hours would be beneficial in preventing or combating atelectasis and will provide an assessment of the patient's progress.
Question 20
How often should endotracheal cuff pressures be monitored?
A
They should be monitored every other day.
B
They should be monitored every three days.
C
They should be monitored weekly.
D
They should be monitored daily.
Question 20 Explanation: 
Endotracheal cuff pressures should be monitored on a daily basis.
Question 21
Each millimeter has ___________ French units.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 21 Explanation: 
Each millimeter has 3 French units.
Question 22
Please mark a possible way to detect that a mechanical ventilator is leaking:
A
Through nurse's notes
B
Through ECG
C
Through waveforms
D
Through a ventilator's check sheet
Question 22 Explanation: 
Waveforms can detect leaking in mechanical ventilators.
Question 23
Please mark a possible way for a respiratory therapist to verify BiPAP performance:
A
The therapist can block the circuit outlet, set IPAP and EPAP, and verify leak.
B
The therapist can open the circuit outlet, set IPAP, and verify the leak.
C
The therapist can open the circuit outlet, set IPAP and EPAP, and verify the leak.
D
The therapist can open the circuit outlet, set IPAP, and verify the leak.
Question 23 Explanation: 
A possible way for a respiratory therapist to verify BiPAP performance is to block the circuit outlet, set IPAP and EPAP, and verify leak.
Question 24
What may be the reasons for a non-functional pulse oximeter on the finger of a patient but functional on the finger of the practitioner?
A
Light skin pigmentation
B
Dark nail polish
C
Poor circulation
D
Optical shunting
Question 24 Explanation: 
Poor circulation, dark nail polish, and optical shunting may be the reasons why a pulse oximeter on the finger of a patient is non- functional but works on the finger of the practitioner.
Question 25
Please mark the percent to which a medical gas cylinder can be filled above the service pressure if it is marked with a + sign:
A
15%
B
10%
C
5%
D
20%
Question 25 Explanation: 
A medical gas cylinder can be filled up to 10% above the service pressure if it is marked with a + sign.
Question 26
Please mark the parts included in dry powder inhaler:
A
Novel valve
B
Coiled strip
C
Manifold
D
Base wheel
Question 26 Explanation: 
A dry powder inhaler contains a coiled strip, a manifold, and a base wheel.
Question 27
The need for synchrony between a patient's inspiration and activation of inhaler is eliminated by:
A
Spacer on a MDI
B
Lever on dry powder inhaler
C
A coiled strip of dry powder inhaler
D
Spacer on a dry powder inhaler
Question 27 Explanation: 
Spacer on a MDI eliminates the need for synchrony between a patient's inspiration and activation of inhaler.
Question 28
The end tidal CO2 is monitored by:
A
pulse oximeter
B
co-oximeter
C
ABGs
D
transcutaneous gas analyzer
Question 28 Explanation: 
End tidal CO2 is monitored by a co-oximeter.
Question 29
Which of the following may affect the accuracy of a galvanic fuel cell that is placed inline ventilator circuit?
A
Altitude
B
Excessive pressure settings
C
Excess water on the cell membrane
D
The temperature of the circuit
Question 29 Explanation: 
Altitude, excessive pressure settings, and excess water on the cell membrane can affect the accuracy of a galvanic fuel cell that is placed inline ventilator circuit.
Question 30
Please mark the gas that is nonflammable and supports combustion used as an anesthetic agent:
A
Nitric oxide
B
Carbon dioxide
C
Helium
D
Oxygen
Question 30 Explanation: 
Helium is non-flammable and supports combustion used as an anesthetic agent.
Question 31
What test is required by the Department of Transportation to be performed on gas cylinders every 5-10 years?
A
Compression
B
Cylinder
C
Identification
D
Hydrostatic
Question 31 Explanation: 
The Department of Transportation required a hydrostatic test to be performed on gas cylinders every 5-10 years.
Question 32
What is the minimum flow for an operation os a simple facemask?
A
6 L/min
B
7 L/min
C
5 L/min
D
8 L/min
Question 32 Explanation: 
The minimum flow for operation of a simple facemask is 6 L/min.
Question 33
What is the minimum storage capacity of bulk oxygen gas?
A
18,000 cubic feet of oxygen
B
10,000 cubic feet of oxygen
C
22,000 cubic feet of oxygen
D
13,000 cubic feet of oxygen
Question 33 Explanation: 
13,000 cubic feet of oxygen is the minimum capacity of gas storage of this gas.
Question 34
Please mark the essential elements for the spreading of a disease:
A
Infectious agent, reservoir, a portal of exit, a portal of entry, susceptible host
B
Infectious agent, reservoir, a portal of exit, method of transmission, a portal of entry, susceptible host
C
Infectious agent, reservoir, method of transmission, a portal of entry, susceptible host
D
Infectious agent, reservoir, a portal of exit, method of transmission, transporter, a portal of entry, susceptible host
Question 34 Explanation: 
The essential elements for a disease to spread are: Infectious agent, reservoir, a portal of exit, method of transmission, a portal of entry, susceptible host
Question 35
Please mark the standard precautions for infection control:
A
Patient isolation
B
One must wear a HEPA mask
C
One must wear a gown, a mask or face shield
D
One must wash hands, wear gloves and wear a gown
Question 35 Explanation: 
The standard precautions for infection control are wearing a gown, a mask or face shield as well as washing hands, wearing gloves, and wearing a gown.
Question 36
Please mark the airborne infections that would place a patient under airborne precautions:
A
Influenza
B
None of the listed
C
Tuberculosis
D
Chickenpox
Question 36 Explanation: 
Tuberculosis and chicken pox would place a patient under airborne precautions.
Question 37
What organism will not be killed with pasteurization?
A
Pneumonia
B
Influenza
C
Tetanus
D
Tuberculosis
Question 37 Explanation: 
Pasteurization will not essentially kill tetanus because it can survive through it can stand heat over 120 degrees for longer than 30 minutes.
Question 38
What should be used for the cleaning of the equipment of the outlet of a ventilator culture?
A
CIDEX
B
Autoclave
C
Alcohol wipes
D
Ethylene oxide
Question 38 Explanation: 
Ethylene oxide should be used for cleaning of equipment when there is pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 39
Please mark the acceptable range for error the calibration of a volume monitoring spirometer:
A
+/- 1% or +/- 15 mL
B
+/- 7% or +/- 120 mL
C
+/- 3.5% or +/- 65 mL
D
+/- 3% or +/- 50 m
Question 39 Explanation: 
The acceptable degree of error in the calibration of a volume monitoring spirometer is +/- 3.5% or +/- 65 mL.
Question 40
Please mark the factors that can affect quality assurance within an ABG lab:
A
Therapists
B
Ordering process
C
Sample collecting
D
Reporting of gases
Question 40 Explanation: 
Therapists, sample collecting, ordering process, and reporting the gases affect quality assurance within an ABG lab.
Question 41
Mark the statements that are true about transcutaneous monitoring:
Question 42
Please mark the wrong statement about quality control for a blood gas analyzer:
A
An out of control electrode performance reading shows the calibration points to be linear, however that quality control points are not.
B
In order to verify performance across the clinical range, quality controls are placed high or low.
C
Quality controls are predefined samples positioned along the expected response curve.
D
The concept of quality control is to determine the measurement characteristics of the analyzer.
Question 42 Explanation: 
Quality controls are not just low and high but they are placed in normal and high ranges to verify performance across the clinical range.
Question 43
Which measurements be checked daily during calibrations of a PFT machine?
A
Flow sensing devices
B
Volume devices
C
Volume measurements
D
Flow measuring accuracy
Question 43 Explanation: 
Volume measurements should be performed daily to ensure proper calibration of a pulmonary function testing machine.
Question 44
Please mark the electrode that measures the PO2 in an arterial blood gas sample:
A
Sanz
B
Clark
C
Severinghaus
D
Levey-Jennings
Question 44 Explanation: 
Clark electrode measures PO2 in an ABG sample.
Question 45
Please mark the acceptable range of error in diagnostic spirometers:
A
+/- 5% or +/- 60 mL
B
+/- 3% or +/- 50 mL
C
+/- 1% or +/- 15 mL
D
+/- 7% or +/- 70 mL
Question 45 Explanation: 
The acceptable degrees of error in diagnostic spirometers is +/- 3% or +/- 50 mL.
Question 46
What patient would benefit from an allergy skin test?
A
Lung cancer
B
OSA
C
Histoplasmosis
D
Asthma
Question 46 Explanation: 
Asthma patients should have an allergy skin test.
Question 47
Airway obstruction most commonly occurs when there is:
A
laryngeal edema
B
aspiration of foreign objects
C
the tongue blocking the airway
D
subglottic region edema
Question 47 Explanation: 
Airway obstruction most commonly occurs when there is the tongue blocking the airway.
Question 48
Please mark the airway that is designed with a flared proximal tip similar to a trumpet:
A
Endotracheal airway
B
None of the listed
C
Oropharyngeal airway
D
Nasopharyngeal airway
Question 48 Explanation: 
The nasopharyngeal airway has a flared proximal tip, similar to a trumpet.
Question 49
What type of airways are Berman and Guedel?
A
Oropharyngeal airways
B
Endotracheal airway
C
Nasopharyngeal airway
D
Tracheostomy airway
Question 49 Explanation: 
Berman and Guedel are oropharyngeal airways.
Question 50
What tracheostomy tube is recommended for a patient who has been "trached" and subjected to SIMV mode of mechanical ventilation? (Their upper airway is obstructed, and the pulmonologist is worried about withdrawing mechanical ventilation.)
A
Weaning tracheostomy tube
B
Tracheostomy-talk valve
C
Fenestrated tracheostomy tube
D
None of the above
Question 50 Explanation: 
A fenestrated tracheostomy tube is recommended for this patient’s case.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 50 questions to complete.

Leave a Comment

×