CVPM Vet Manager Practice Test

The U.S. Veterinary Hospital Managers Association administers the Certified Veterinary Practice Manager exam.

The CVPM is a benefit for all aspiring vet managers. The CVPM credential is widely regarded as the top designation for professional veterinary managers.

Check out these 84 free practice questions for the CVPM exam!

CVPM Veterinary Manager Practice Test

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Question 1
Please identify which of the following bodies can provide the most up-to-date laws and regulations on opening a veterinary practice.
A
FDA's Center for Veterinary Medicine
B
American Veterinary Medical Association
C
Licensing board
Question 1 Explanation: 
The licencing board is tasked with providing copies of the latest laws and regulations on opening a new veterinary practice to interested parties.
Question 2
Please identify which of the following ethical codes most often serves as the basis for regulatory state practice acts on the practice of veterinary medicine.
A
The Code of Medical Ethics
B
The AVMA code
C
Code of Business Conduct and Ethics
D
None of the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
The code of the American Veterinary Medical Association is usually incorporated into regulatory state practice acts on the practice of veterinary medicine.
Question 3
Please identify which of the following are criteria for a medication to be adopted as a Veterinary prescription drug as stipulated in Section 201-105 of The Code of Federal Regulations.
A
The medication must be in the possession of a licensed veterinarian
B
The drug must have passed all FDA testing and labeling directives
C
A and B
Question 3 Explanation: 
To qualify as a veterinary prescription drug, a licensed veterinarian must possess the drug in question for use in professional practice, as stipulated in Section 201-105 of The Code of Federal Regulations.
Question 4
The FDA has unintentionally encouraged the unapproved use of drugs (off-label use) by increasing the cost of production to a point when it is a prohibitive cost for companies to introduce special drugs meant for the treatment of rare animals. Please identify which system has been responsible for this situation.
A
DEA
B
DRLS
C
NADA
D
None of the above
Question 4 Explanation: 
The New Animal Drug Application (NADA) system of the FDA was responsible for unintentionally encouraging the unapproved use of drugs (off-label use).
Question 5
Pesticides and rodenticides are regulated by which federal regulatory agency?
A
The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B
The Environmental Protection Agency
C
US Department of Agriculture/Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
D
The Center for Veterinary Medicine
Question 5 Explanation: 
The Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for the regulation of pesticides and rodenticides.
Question 6
Please indicate which of the following denotes a type of damage that a court can order in a veterinary lawsuit.
A
Compensatory
B
Nominal
C
Punitive
D
All of the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
All of the above given types of damages can be awarded in a veterinary lawsuit.
Question 7
Most cases of Veterinary professional liability are derived from ...
A
the Law of malpractice
B
Criminal law
C
Civil law
D
None of the above
Question 7 Explanation: 
Most often, cases of Veterinary professional liability fall under the Law of malpractice.
Question 8
Please identify which of the following information is usually found in the title of a court case.
A
A small letter "v"
B
The name of the Court where the case is submitted
C
Names of the lawsuit parties
D
A and C
Question 8 Explanation: 
Court case titles usually consist of the names of the two parties separated by a lower-case letter "v".
Question 9
Please identify which of the following is listed first in the title of a trial court case.
A
The Plaintiff's name
B
The defendant's name
C
The Court's name
D
The Judge's name
Question 9 Explanation: 
The Plaintiff's name is always listed first in the title of trial court cases.
Question 10
Which court is the most limited in their authority in the U.S. Legal System.
A
A Court of appeals
B
A Magistrates' court
C
A Special court
Question 11
What is the principle of entering patient's medical record data on the SOMR record?
A
Alphabetically
B
Chronologically
C
Alphanumerically
Question 11 Explanation: 
The records are entered on the Source-Oriented Medical Record (SOMR) chronologically, by office visits or hospitalizations.
Question 12
Medical record audits intend to benefit a veterinary practice. Please identify among the following the ways in which this is the case.
A
Help identify service gaps by reviewing patient data
B
Make sure there is legal compliance
C
Increase profitability
D
B and C
Question 12 Explanation: 
Medical record audits are useful to veterinary practices in that they help ensure legal compliance and increase profitability.
Question 13
Under most states' laws and regulations, the legal owner of a pet's medical records is...
A
the pet owner
B
the veterinary practice
C
the animal's veterinarian personally
D
the pet owner jointly with the veterinarian
Question 13 Explanation: 
Under the laws and regulations of most states, the pet medical record' legal ownership is in the veterinary practice. The animal owner usually has the right to request a copy of the pet medical records.
Question 14
Please identify which of the following falls under a special court.
A
Juvenile court
B
Probate court
C
Small claims court
D
A and B
Question 14 Explanation: 
The juvenile court and the probate court are both found under the title of special courts.
Question 15
The San Diego Veterinary Medical Association was charged for adopting minimum fee schedules and prohibiting its members from accepting low-cost patients, which was found to be a violation under Section 1 of the ...
A
Sherman Act
B
Animal Welfare Act
C
Grant Act
D
None of the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
The San Diego Veterinary Medical Association was charged under Section 1 of the Sherman Act.
Question 16
The “Subjective” section of the progress notes includes which of the following information?
A
Information based on owner observations
B
Information that is more opinion, than fact
C
Information related to the differential diagnosis
D
A and B
E
A and C
Question 16 Explanation: 
The “Subjective” section of the progress notes includes information on owners' observations that is more of an opinion than fact.
Question 17
Please identify which of the following is an abbreviation used on a patient medical record, which means that the patient can be allowed to drink as much water as desired.
A
H2O free
B
Water as lib
C
H2O ad lib
D
Water free
Question 17 Explanation: 
H2O ad lib is a way to indicate on a patient medical record that the patient can be allowed to drink water as desired.
Question 18
Please identify which of the following are the most significant costs that fall under a veterinary practice's operational costs.
A
Inventory
B
Medical supplies
C
Staff
D
A and C
E
Commercial property insurance
Question 18 Explanation: 
Inventory and staffing are the two most significant operational costs for a veterinary practice.
Question 19
What are personal property taxes paid for by the veterinary practice?
A
Inventory value
B
Insurance premiums value
C
Pharmacy fees value
D
All of the above
Question 19 Explanation: 
Personal property taxes, a type of holding expenses, are paid for the value of the inventory, pharmacy fees and insurance premiums.
Question 20
In a veterinary practice, inventory holding costs usually make up ... percent of inventory expenditures.
A
3-5%
B
4-8%
C
8% - 15%
D
14-25%
Question 21
A legal agreement that explains and details the reasons for and terms of a partner/shareholder's sale of the interest in a veterinary hospital is called...
A
a buy-sell agreement
B
a partner liquidation agreement
C
a shareholder sale agreement
D
None of the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
A legal agreement that explains and details the reasons for and terms of a partner/shareholder's sale of the interest in a veterinary hospital is called a buy-sell agreement.
Question 22
"FOB shipping point” printed on an inventory delivery means that ownership of the inventory passes to the veterinary practice...
A
once the merchandise is shipped.
B
upon delivery of the merchandise.
C
once payment is received.
D
None of the above
Question 22 Explanation: 
"FOB shipping point” printed on an inventory delivery means that ownership of the inventory passes to the veterinary practice once the merchandise is delivered.
Question 23
Please identify what is the correct term for a type of pricing that adjusts the sale price as close as possible to the sale, taking into account its most current replacement cost.
A
Penetration pricing
B
Just in time pricing
C
Skimming price
D
Economy pricing
Question 23 Explanation: 
The type of pricing that adjusts the sale price as close as possible to the sale, taking into account its most current replacement cost is called just in time pricing.
Question 24
Please identify what is the Breakeven analysis formula for adequately pricing a product.
A
The sales price is the cost increased by 30%
B
The sales price is the sum of vendor cost and fixed cost
C
The sales price is the sum of fixed cost and variable cost
Question 24 Explanation: 
The Breakeven analysis formula stipulates that the sales price is the sum of fixed cost and variable cost.
Question 25
Keeping a perpetual inventory system, sometimes called continuous inventory systems, aim to have inventory information updated in almost real-time. Please identify which of the following presents as the greatest obstacles to these types of inventory systems.
A
Barcode and RFID tags errors
B
Hospital consumables
C
Changing retail prices
D
B and C
Question 25 Explanation: 
Hospital consumables are the greatest challenge in keeping a perpetual inventory system.
Question 26
A type of marketing strategies focuses on existing clients and invests in maintaining and increasing their loyalty. Please identify which of the following is the correct name of this marketing strategy.
A
Client-focused marketing
B
Internal marketing
C
Client-bond marketing
D
External marketing
Question 26 Explanation: 
Internal marketing is a type of marketing strategies focuses on existing clients and invests in maintaining and increasing their loyalty.
Question 27
A type of insurance plan aims to provide preventive veterinary care for the animal and to promote health. Please identify which of the following is the correct name of this insurance plan.
A
Prevention insurance plan
B
Health promoting insurance plan
C
Preventive care plan
D
Wellness plan
Question 27 Explanation: 
Wellness plan is a type of insurance plan aims to provide preventive veterinary care for the animal and to promote health.
Question 28
Please identify what kind of employment term refers to a contractual relationship in which employees can quit and employers can terminate an employee on the basis of their own preference.
A
Apprenticeship
B
Fixed-term and contract employment
C
Employment at-will
D
None of the above
Question 28 Explanation: 
Employment at-will is a kind of employment term by which employees can quit and employers can terminate an employee on the basis of their own preference.
Question 29
Please identify which of the following described the professional attitudes toward advertising by veterinarians.
A
Advertising by veterinarians is in violation of the professional veterinarian ethical codes
B
Veterinarians tend to be opposed to blatant forms of advertising
C
Veterinarians are open to all forms of advertising on the market
Question 30
The Human-Companion Animal Bond is extremely important. If it was to be extended to the veterinarian, what would be the likely implications of this?
A
Frequent unnecessary service requests by owners
B
Improved communication
C
Recommendations are more readily followed
D
B and C
Question 30 Explanation: 
Extending the the Human-Companion Animal Bond to include the veterinarian team would likely result in improved communication and more readily followed recommendations.
Question 31
Please identify which of the following government bodies oversees advertising and ensures compliance with Veterinary Medical Ethics in this respect.
A
AVMA
B
AAHA
C
The Animal Advertising Ethics Committee
D
A and C
Question 31 Explanation: 
The American Veterinary Medical Association oversees advertising and ensures compliance with Veterinary Medical Ethics in this respect.
Question 32
A type of marketing that includes unpaid advertising activities in the media is called...
A
Undercover marketing
B
Publicity marketing
C
Transactional marketing
D
Word of mouth marketing
Question 32 Explanation: 
Publicity marketing is a type of marketing that includes unpaid advertising activities in the media.
Question 33
Please identify which of the following are components of a veterinary fee revenue collection system.
A
Payroll
B
Collection policies
C
Employee discounts
D
B and C
Question 33 Explanation: 
Employee discounts and collection policies are both part of a veterinary fee revenue collection system.
Question 34
What does the acronym PONK stand for?
A
Pet Owner, No Kid
B
Pet Owner Net Knowledge
C
Pet Owner New Kind
Question 34 Explanation: 
PONK stands for "Pet Owner, No Kid" and denotes a common type of customer in a veterinary clinic.
Question 35
Please identify which of the following distinguishes a product or a service from the competition.
A
Benefit differential
B
Branding
C
Positioning
D
None of the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
A product's brand differentiates that specific product from the competition on the market.
Question 36
A financial statement that lists the revenues and expenses for a defined period of time is called...
A
a cash flow statement.
B
a shareholders' equity statement.
C
an income statement.
Question 36 Explanation: 
A financial statement that lists the revenues and expenses for a defined period of time is called an income statement.
Question 37
In the case when income and expenses are recorded and measured at the time of the transactions, then this is an example of a hospital operating on...
A
a just in time principle.
B
an accrual accounting basis.
C
the cash-basis accounting method.
Question 37 Explanation: 
A hospital that uses the accrual accounting method, records revenue at the time when the transaction is completed.
Question 38
Please identify which of the following is an example of who can represent the veterinarian during an IRS audit.
A
An enrolled agent
B
A Certified Public Accountant (CPA)
C
An attorney
D
All of the above
Question 38 Explanation: 
During an IRS audit, an enrolled agent, an attorney and a CPA are allowed to represent the veterinarian.
Question 39
The privity of contract is between the animal owner and the insurance company in case of which of the following type of insurance?
A
A workers compensation insurance
B
A cyber liability coverage insurance
C
A pet health insurance
D
None of the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
In a pet health insurance, the privity of contract is between the animal owner and the insurance company.
Question 40
On a particular day, a veterinary clinic employee worked from 8:00 - 13:00 and from 3:00 - 7:00. The employee will get paid for how many hours on this particular day?
A
8 hours
B
8 hours of which 3 overtime
C
4 hours
D
None of the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
If on a particular day, a veterinary clinic employee worked from 8:00 - 13:00 and from 3:00 - 7:00, he or she will be paid for 8 hours.
Question 41
The income statement reports by matching the revenues generated in a particular period based on the expenses made within the same period. This principle is called...
A
Matching principle
B
Fusing principle
C
Time period principle
D
Full disclosure principle
Question 41 Explanation: 
The income statements utilizes the matching principle by which the revenues generated in a particular period are matched with the expenses made within the same period.
Question 42
This type of tax is levied on an employee’s gross wages. A matching employer contribution is not required. These statements describe the ...
A
alternative minimum tax.
B
Medicare tax.
C
federal income tax.
D
social security tax.
Question 43
A veterinary practice issued a issued a USD 5,000 note to a supplier. The supplier discounted the note 12%. Please calculate the amount of the proceeds from this note?
A
USD 5,100
B
USD 5,000
C
USD 4,900
D
None of the above
Question 43 Explanation: 
The proceeds from this note are USD 4,900, found by subtracting from the original face amount, the sum of the face amount of the note and interest.
Question 44
A veterinary practice purchased a new operating equipment peace that cost USD 90,000, by also trading in older version with a book value of USD 35,000. The trade in allowance was $40,000. The practice paid USD 50,000. Please identify what is the cost of the new piece going to be in financial accounting records, according to the accounting rule that applies to an exchange of similar assets, whereby the trade value is greater than the book value of the old asset.
A
USD 85,000
B
USD 90,000
C
USD 50,000
D
None of the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
USD 85,000 is the correct answer, found as the sum of the amount paid and the book value of the traded-in item.
Question 45
On account balances, the sum of debits is always...
A
greater than the sum of credits.
B
lower than the sum of credits.
C
equal to the sum of credits.
D
None of the above.
Question 45 Explanation: 
On account balances, the sum of debits is always equal to the sum of credits.
Question 46
In the practice of veterinary marketing, creating and communicating value bears great significance. What is the meaning of 'value' in this sense?
A
It refers to the monetary gain
B
It refers to the benefit the animal owner receives from the veterinary service
C
It refers to the friendship between veterinarians and their clients
D
None of the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
In the practice of veterinary marketing, it is very important to create and communicate value, which refers to the benefit the animal owner receives from the veterinary service.
Question 47
Please identify what of the following is a factor in deciding whether to use the Critical Incident Technique” (CIT).
A
General public survey data
B
Customer testimonials
C
Customer complaints
D
None of the above
Question 47 Explanation: 
CIT is a set of procedures used for determining quality of service and one factor could be customer complaints.
Question 48
Please identify which of the following can be the basis for a invasion of privacy lawsuit with personal damages thereby.
A
Information disclosure on examinations and care for patients with hereditary defects
B
Information disclosure on vaccinations
C
Information disclosure on estimated breeding value
D
A and C
Question 48 Explanation: 
From the above options, only disclosure of information about vaccinations cannot be a basis for a invasion of privacy lawsuit with personal damages.
Question 49
Please identify which of the following government bodies is in charge of evaluating citizen complaints on possible violations of the ethical code by veterinary professionals.
A
The American Veterinary Medical Association
B
The American Veterinary Regulatory Authority
C
State veterinary associations
D
The American Animal Hospital Association
Question 49 Explanation: 
State veterinary associations are in charge of evaluating citizen complaints on possible violations of the ethical code by veterinary professionals.
Question 50
A veterinarian using testimonials for advertising must comply with the American Animal Hospital Association's requirements. Please identify which of the following is an example of such a requirement.
A
The endorser must be a trusted, long-term customer of the veterinarian
B
Any financial or other affiliation between the endorser and the veterinary must be fully publicly disclosed
C
Testimonials are not allowed as a form of advertising for veterinarians
Question 50 Explanation: 
In case of using testimonials as a form of advertising, any financial or other affiliation between the endorser and the veterinary must be fully publicly disclosed.
Question 51
Please identify which of the following fall among the five management functions of the operational framework for managers.
A
planning
B
leading
C
controlling
D
A and B
E
A, B and C
Question 51 Explanation: 
The five management functions of the operational framework for managers include planning, organizing, leading, controlling, and achieving.
Question 52
Please identify which of the following fall among the four basic management activities for a veterinary practice.
A
Operations and maintenance
B
Client relations and marketing
C
Technology and network management
D
A and B
E
A, B and C
Question 52 Explanation: 
The four basic management activities for a veterinary practice manager are human resources management, financial management, operations and maintenance management, and marketing and client relations management.
Question 53
The National Labor Relations act stipulates that an employee has the right to...
A
take an unpaid leave for medical emergencies.
B
discuss their wages.
C
a paid vacation.
D
a promotion.
Question 53 Explanation: 
The National Labor Relations act protects stipulates that an employee can discuss their wages with their employer.
Question 54
Compensation administration as a part of human resource management refers to...
A
establishing a cost-effective structure of the payments made to employees for the work they perform.
B
a software that supports organizations in managing employee compensation.
C
a research strategy for determining the optimal employee compensation according to the latest market trends.
D
None of the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
Compensation administration as a part of human resource management refers to establishing a cost-effective structure of the payments made to employees for the work they perform.
Question 55
Please identify which of the following is not an example of technical competencies.
A
Managing patient data
B
Report writing
C
Medical vocabulary knowledge
D
B and C
Question 55 Explanation: 
Medical vocabulary knowledge would not be an example of a technical competency.
Question 56
A manager exhibits the following characteristics: shows tolerance for vagueness and imprecision, takes into account information coming from different sources and asks for a lot of public survey data and statistics. This manager is likely using which of the following decision making styles:
A
Autocratic style
B
Analytic style
C
Laissez-faire leadership
D
None of the above
Question 56 Explanation: 
A manager, who shows tolerance for vagueness and imprecision, takes into account information coming from different sources, and asks for a lot of public survey data and statistics is likely using an analytic decision-making style.
Question 57
Please identify which of the following is the appropriate term for a physiological deficiency that renders a specific outcome more favorable than other.
A
A condition
B
A disorder
C
A need
D
A syndrome
Question 57 Explanation: 
Physiological deficiency needs renders a specific outcome more favorable than other.
Question 58
A veterinary hospital has a handbook on the performance appraisal policy in support of the employee performance appraisal scheme. Please identify which of the following statements refers to something that the practice manager of this hospital should be aware of.
A
A practice manager needs to regularly update the employee performance appraisal policy Handbook
B
The published policy contained in this Handbook is considered binding by courts
C
A practice manager is not limited to the published Handbook when deciding on appraisals
D
None of the above is relevant
Question 58 Explanation: 
A veterinary hospital that has published a handbook on the performance appraisal policy must bear in mind that it is legally obliged to decide on appraisals in accordance to the published handbook.
Question 59
Assertiveness training refers to a method of making people...
A
more mindful of colleagues' positions and needs.
B
more confident and free to express themselves in verbal communication.
C
more outspoken regarding their wages and performance appraisal in an organization.
D
None of the above
Question 59 Explanation: 
Assertiveness training refers to a method of making people more confident and free to express themselves in verbal communication.
Question 60
A competency-based compensation scheme determines employees' pay based on their...
A
years of experience in the field
B
skills and knowledge
C
time devoted to the job
D
a fixed, pre-detrmined premium
Question 60 Explanation: 
A competency-based compensation scheme determines employees' pay based on their skills, knowledge and expertise.
Question 61
Please identify which of the following does not fall in the responsibilities of a staff meeting leader.
A
Deciding on the person to be taking the minutes
B
Distributing the minutes after the meeting
C
Summarizing main points at the end of the meeting
D
Making sure meeting attendees are arriving in time
Question 61 Explanation: 
The responsibilities of a staff meeting leader include appointing a person to be taking the minutes, distributing the minutes after the meeting, and summarizing main points at the end of the meeting, among others.
Question 62
According to the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, a manager has a legal right to examine which documents before granting employment?
A
A social security card
B
A birth ceritficate
C
A green card
D
All of the above
Question 62 Explanation: 
According to the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, a manager has a legal right to examine a person's social security card, birth certificate, or a green card, among others, before granting employment.
Question 63
What is the main purpose of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEO)?
A
To petition for the respect of workers' rights
B
To determine whether there was unlawful discrimination
C
To prosecute domestic dissent
D
To enforce the Civil Rights Act
Question 63 Explanation: 
The EEO was established with the goal of enforcing the Civil Rights Act.
Question 64
The Fair Labor and Standards Act is enforced by which body?
A
The Code Enforcement Division
B
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration
C
The Labor Standard Division
D
None of the above
Question 64 Explanation: 
The Code Enforcement Division of the US state Department of Labor, is tasked with enforcing the Fair Labor and Standards Act.
Question 65
The Americans with Disabilities Act stipulates that an employer is legally prohibited from asking a perspective employee about...
A
whether they have a disability
B
the severity of one's disability
C
the exact type of one's disability
D
All of the above
Question 65 Explanation: 
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an employer must not ask a prospective employee about his or her exact type of one's disability, the severity of their disability, nor whether they have a disability.
Question 66
It is in violation of ethical principles to offer a nonprofessional organization or an individual .... for the purposes of illegal practice of veterinary medicine.
A
vehicles and facilities
B
professional services or knowledge
C
drugs and medicines
D
serums and vaccines
Question 66 Explanation: 
It is in violation of ethical principles to offer a nonprofessional organization or an individual professional services or knowledge for the purposes of illegal practice of veterinary medicine.
Question 67
Please identify what type of employee performance appraisal involves positioning an employee into preset brackets and groups.
A
General performance appraisal
B
Group-order ranking
C
Written essay
D
None of the above
Question 67 Explanation: 
Group-order ranking is a type of employee performance appraisal involves positioning an employee into preset brackets and groups that are ranked by specific criteria.
Question 68
Please mark which of the following is the leadership theory that aims to identify specific personality characteristics that predict successful leadership in different situations.
A
Trait Theory of Leadership
B
Effective Leadership Theory
C
The Great Man Theory of Leadership
D
Transformational Leadership Theory
Question 68 Explanation: 
The Trait Theory of Leadership aims to identify specific personality characteristics that predict successful leadership in different situations.
Question 69
The Polygraph Protection Act stipulates that an employer is legally prohibited from...
A
asking an employee to take a polygraph test
B
forcing an employee to take a polygraph test
C
denying employment to a prospective employee, who refused to take a polygraph test
D
B and C
Question 69 Explanation: 
The Polygraph Protection Act stipulates that an employer is legally prohibited from forcing an employee to take a polygraph test and denying employment to a prospective employee, who declines to submit a polygraph test result.
Question 70
The Family and Medical Leave Act stipulates that an employee qualifies for maternity leave in case which of the following conditions are met:
A
During one year before submitting the maternity leave request, the employee has worked a minimum of 1,250 hours.
B
The employee has worked for the organization for a minimum of 12 months
C
The employee has worked for the organization for a minimum of 12 consecutive months
D
A and B
E
A and C
Question 70 Explanation: 
To qualify for maternity leave, an employee needs to have worked for a minimum of 12 months, even if these are non-consecutive, and a minimum of 1,250 hours in the 12 months preceding the date of the request.
Question 71
A veterinary professional is changing a drug in a way different that its FDA label for the purposes of meeting a special patient's need. This practice is known as...
A
drug formulation.
B
fusion.
C
compounding.
D
amalgamating.
Question 71 Explanation: 
Changing a drug in a way different that its FDA label for the purposes of meeting a special patient's need is known as compounding.
Question 72
A veterinary practice can have its own website mainly for the purposes of...
A
educating the public.
B
marketing.
C
financing its operation.
D
efficiently managing its records.
Question 72 Explanation: 
A veterinary practice can have its own website mainly for the purposes of marketing.
Question 73
In line with the AAHA's obligatory patient care standards for veterinarians, before an anesthetic procedure of any kind, ...
A
patients must receive a cardiac auscultation.
B
patients must be taken a complete history.
C
patients must receive a thorough examination of major organ systems.
D
B and C
Question 73 Explanation: 
In line with the AAHA's obligatory patient care standards for veterinarians, before an anesthetic procedure of any kind, patients must be taken a complete history and receive a cardiac auscultation.
Question 74
With regards to animal housing, the American Animal Hospital Association stipulates which of the following:
A
Patients are regularly walked for elimination
B
Patients are provided with adequate bedding
C
Patients must have access to food and water at any given time
D
All of the above
E
A and B only
Question 74 Explanation: 
With regards to animal housing, the American Animal Hospital Association stipulates, among others, that patients are regularly walked for elimination and are provided with adequate bedding.
Question 75
Please identify which of the following statements describes the AVMA’s official position on the human- companion animal bond
A
The human-companion animal bond exists and it is important for the health of individuals and communities
B
The human-companion animal bond exists but has no significant relevance to the practice of veterinary medicine
C
The American Veterinary Medical Association has no official position on the human-companion animal bond
Question 75 Explanation: 
The American Veterinary Medical Association officially recognizes that the human-companion animal bond exists and finds it important for the health of individuals and communities.
Question 76
Please identify which trait allows successful leaders to be able to influence their followers.
A
Positive Reinforcement
B
Integrity
C
Coercion
D
Financial gains
Question 76 Explanation: 
Integrity allows successful leaders to be able to influence their followers.
Question 77
Please identify which trait allows successful leaders to be able to influence their followers.
A
Positive Reinforcement
B
Integrity
C
Coercion
D
Financial gains
Question 77 Explanation: 
Integrity allows successful leaders to be able to influence their followers.
Question 78
In assessing whether a certain act or behavior complies with ethical standards, which of the following cannot be used?
A
Reason
B
Judgment
C
Empathy
D
None of the above can be used
Question 78 Explanation: 
Empathy cannot be used when assessing whether a certain act or behavior complies with ethical standards.
Question 79
According to the Veterinary Hospital Manager’s Association's job description classification, what is the most likely difference in duties between a practice manager and an office manager?
A
Practice managers must hold a management degree, while office managers are not required to do so
B
Practice managers are in charge of business activities, while office managers oversee compliance with administrative policies
C
Practice managers have a much wider scope of responsibilities than office managers
D
There are no major differences in duties between practice and office managers
Question 80
What kind of protective measures are veterinary practices required to take upon receiving a patient, according to the Model Infection Control Plan for Veterinary Practices?
A
veterinary professionals must wear face protection at all times
B
Veterinary practices should not be admitting patients suspected of infectious diseases through the general reception area
C
Veterinary practices should not be admitting patients suspected of infectious diseases into an examination room at all.
D
None of the above is stipulated in the Model Infection Control Plan for Veterinary Practices
Question 80 Explanation: 
According to the Model Infection Control Plan for Veterinary Practices, veterinary practices should not be admitting patients suspected of infectious diseases through the general reception area.
Question 81
During a laser surgery, the employee operating the laser is at an increased risk of...
A
burns.
B
eye damage.
C
radiation.
D
A and B
Question 81 Explanation: 
During a laser surgery, the employee operating the laser is at an increased risk of eye damage.
Question 82
In composing a good veterinary appointment schedule, two main goals should be observed. These include...
A
respect staff availability and avoid leaving empty slots
B
minimize waiting time and maximize staff efficiency.
C
consider loyal clients' needs and enable staff flexibility
D
None of the above
Question 82 Explanation: 
A good veterinary appointment schedule should aim to minimize waiting time and maximize staff efficiency.
Question 83
Please identify the U.S. equine veterinarians' professional association below:
A
USEF -United States Equestrian Federation
B
ASEP - American Society for Equine Professionals
C
AAEP - American Association of Equine Practitioners
D
There is no such association in the United States
Question 83 Explanation: 
AAEP, or the American Association of Equine Practitioners, is in charge of promoting horse health and welfare and equine veterinarians' professional advancement.
Question 84
Please indicate which of the following falls under ancillary expenses:
A
Vaccinations
B
Surgeries
C
Grooming
D
None of the above
Question 84 Explanation: 
According to the American Animal Hospital Association’s chart of accounts, ancillary service expenses come from food and board, grooming, and retail products.
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There are 84 questions to complete.

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