Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

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Question 1

All of the following statements describe an appropriate action for the nurse practitioner (NP) when transfusing blood to a patient with a hemoglobin level of 4.3 except for...

A	The NP should complete the transfusion as fast as possible to avoid the patient feeling discomfort
B	The NP should administer oxygen to support the patient’s breathing
C	Monitor the patient for any fever symptoms
D	Monitor for any hypoxia symptoms

Question 1 Explanation:

Statement A is incorrect. The NP should not rush to complete the transfusion as fast as possible because this may lead to volume overload.

Question 2

What medications are likely to be ordered for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?

A	IV Torsemide
B	IV Nitroglycerin
C	IV Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
D	B and C

Question 2 Explanation:

For a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis likely medications include IV Nitroprusside and IV Nitroglycerin.

Question 3

Please identify which of the following statements is correct about the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

A	The patient can keep moving as much as before
B	The patient will make up for a skipped dose by doubling the next one
C	The patient can make up for a skipped dose by taking one as soon as he/she remembers
D	None of the above

Question 3 Explanation:

A patient who skipped a dose of ACE inhibitors will make up by taking one as soon as he/she remembers. The patiet will slow down with movement while on this medication.

Question 4

A patient is exhibiting the following symptoms: coughing, feeling dizzy, experiencing difficulties breathing and feeling pressure in the chest.

A	Anaphylactic shock
B	Septic shock
C	Cardiogenic shock
D	Hypovolemic shock

Question 4 Explanation:

The patient is likely experiencing an anaphylactic shock, which is caused by an allergic reaction.

Question 5

A patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Please indicate what would be an appropriate action in this case.

A	The patient receives fluids
B	The patient receives an insulin dose
C	Oxygenation
D	A and B

Question 5 Explanation:

For a patient experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) fluids and insulin would both be an appropriate measure.

Question 6

Please identify which of the following statements is correct about the endotracheal tube (ETT).

A	The ETT is removed when the patient does not require an artificial airway anymore.
B	In removing the ETT, receiving help from another NP is in order.
C	The NP will deflate the cuff before removing the ETT
D	All of the above

Question 6 Explanation:

A NP should remove the endotracheal tube (ETT) when the patient no longer requires an artificial airway. The NP will deflate the cuff before removing the ETT. Another NP can hold the ETT while one is untaping it.

Question 7

Please identify which of the following is an indication of the initial phase of Acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

A	Mood swings and feelings of sadness
B	Excessive fluid retention, swelling
C	A small amount of urine output (400 ml or less per day)
D	B and C
E	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

During the initial phase of Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), patients are likely to produce less than 400 ml of urine daily and experience swelling from excessive fluid retention.

Question 8

A NP is receiving Intermittent Hemodialysis (IHD) for solute and fluid removal. What is a common complication of this procedure that the NP should be prepared for?

A	Severely low blood pressure
B	Hypertension
C	Hemorrhage
D	None of the above

Question 8 Explanation:

A most likely complication of Intermittent Hemodialysis (IHD) is hypotension, or excessively low blood pressure.

Question 9

A patient with sepsis is experiencing an Acute Hypotensive Episode (AHE). What is likely to follow?

A	Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
B	Myocardial infarction (MI)
C	Brain hemorrhage

Question 9 Explanation:

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is likely to happen in a patient with sepsis, preceded by an Acute Hypotensive Episode (AHE).

Question 10

The main function of the Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) is...

A	establishing a connection between the brain and the spinal cord.
B	providing mechanical protection to the brain and the spinal cord.
C	acting as a buffer for the brain and the spinal cord and absorbing shock.
D	None of the above
E	B and C

Question 10 Explanation:

The main purpose of the Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) is to act as a buffer for the brain and the spinal cord, absorbing shock and providing mechanical protection.

Question 11

A patient's acute Tubular Necrosis was likely caused by a nephrotoxic agent. What would be the priority action for the NP?

A	Stop the patient's medications for diabetes
B	Monitor the kidney function on a daily basis
C	Make sure that no further exposure to the nephrotoxic agent is happening
D	None of the above

Question 11 Explanation:

If a NP is aware that the patient's acute Tubular Necrosis was likely caused by a nephrotoxic agent, the NP should ensure that no further exposure to the nephrotoxic agent is happening.

Question 12

An end stage renal disease patient is experiencing a sudden onset of a group of symptoms including shortness of breath, excessive fatigue and uneven heartbeat. Which of the following is likely causing these symptoms?

A	Hypercalcemia
B	Hyperkalemia
C	Hypertension
D	None of the above

Question 12 Explanation:

A patient in the final stages of renal disease experiencing shortness of breath, excessive fatigue and uneven heartbeat likely has a high blood potassium (hyperkalemia).

Question 13

Patients in the final stage of renal disease are at an increased risk of bleeding. Which of the following should the patient be monitored for?

A	Platelet dysfunction
B	Prothrombin deficiency
C	Vitamin B-12 deficiency
D	None of the above

Question 13 Explanation:

Patients in the final stage of renal disease should be monitored for platelet dysfunction.

Question 14

Please identify which of the following conditions leads to an increased risk of hepatic failure.

A	Biliary atresia
B	Autoimmune hepatitis
C	Acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose
D	All of the above
E	B and C

Question 14 Explanation:

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose, autoimmune hepatitis and biliary atresia can all increase the predisposition to hepatic failure.

Question 15

A patient with acute Pancreatitis is experiencing excessive pancreatic juice secretion. Please indicate what group of drugs is likely to decrease this symptom.

A	Anticholinergics
B	Antipyretics
C	Analgesics
D	Statins

Question 15 Explanation:

Anticholinergics including Atropen are likely to decrease pancreatic juice secretion in a patient with acute Pancreatitis.

Question 16

Please identify which of the following is not an example of a task that a NP can assign to a nurse assistant.

A	Demonstrating a patient how to use a Glucose meter
B	Assisting a patient's ambulation
C	Assessing a patient's signs and symptoms
D	A and C
E	All of the above are appropriate tasks to be assigned to a nursing assistant

Question 16 Explanation:

Demonstrating a patient how to use a Glucose meter and assessing a patient's signs and symptoms are both not within the scope of nursing assistant tasks.

Question 17

Please indicate which of the following gives the most accurate measure of renal functions and physiology?

A	GFR (glomerular filtration rate)
B	BUN (blood urea nitrogen)
C	Either of the above, they are equally accurate
D	None of the above

Question 17 Explanation:

GFR, which stands for glomerular filtration rate, is the most accurate measure of kidney function.

Question 18

A patient has just had an abdominal surgery. The patient should be advised to use an abdominal pillow when coughing in order to protect the incision and avoid...

A	fascial necrosis
B	wound dehiscence
C	surgical site infection (SSI)
D	None of the above

Question 18 Explanation:

A patient, who has just had an abdominal surgery should use an abdominal pillow when coughing in order to protect the incision and avoid wound dehiscence.

Question 19

Please identify which of the following is most likely observed during the early stage of renal disease.

A	Vomiting
B	A higher than normal BUN value
C	Muscle cramps
D	None of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

In the early stage of renal disease, known also as Reduced Renal Reserve, it is likely to record a higher than normal BUN (blood, urea, nitrogen) value. There are still no clinical symptoms.

Question 20

A NP is taking into account a patient's Hispanic ethnicity and altering her care practices in accordance to Hispanic cultural values and needs. The NP is demonstrating which principle?

A	Clinical judgment
B	Advocacy and moral agency
C	Systems thinking
D	Response to diversity

Question 20 Explanation:

The NP is demonstrating response to diversity.

Question 21

The NP observes a shallow crater with a pink wound bed. The NP concludes that this pressure ulcer is in which stage?

A	Stage I pressure ulcer
B	Stage II pressure ulcer
C	Stage III pressure
D	None of the above

Question 21 Explanation:

The NP concludes that this is a stage II pressure ulcer.

Question 22

Alzheimer's disease causes lower than normal levels of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A	Norepinephrine
B	Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C	Serotonin
D	None of the above

Question 22 Explanation:

Alzheimer's disease causes lower than normal levels of Acetylcholine in the brain.

Question 23

A patient who has had a a myocardial infarction (MI) is ordered to receive bivalirudin in preparation for PCI. The NP should monitor the patient for all of the following symptoms except...

A	hypothermia.
B	hypotension.
C	bradycardia.
D	bleeding.

Question 23 Explanation:

The NP should not monitor a patient receiving bivalirudin for hypothermia.

Question 24

Four family members insist on staying overnight with a patient, which is contrary to the health center's visitors policy. Please indicate which of the following with be an appropriate course of action for the NP.

A	Allow them to stay overnight considering they are insistent
B	Say it is contrary to the policy and deny granting their request
C	Allow only one to two members to stay but carefully check the effect on the patient
D	None of the above is appropriate

Question 24 Explanation:

In this case the NP should allow only one to two members to stay but carefully check the effect on the patient.

Question 25

A patient admitted to the ICU goes into cardiac arrest. The NP has checked that the DNR order appears in the medical records. What would be an appropriate course of action in this case?

A	The NP should resuscitate the patient considering it is an emergency
B	The NP should not resuscitate
C	The NP should assess the situation and decide on a case-by-case basis
D	None of the above

Question 25 Explanation:

When there is a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the NP should not resuscitate in case of a cardiac arrest.

Question 26

A nurse is taking a phone call from a patient's wife, who inquires about his current state and care plan. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

A	The NP can provide the information considering the patient's closest family member is inquiring
B	The NP can put the patient's wife though and let the patient speak to her in case his condition is stable
C	The NP should explain she cannot provide any patient information without the patient's consent
D	The NP should ask the wife security questions to verify her identity, such "What is as the patient's DOB"

Question 26 Explanation:

The NP should explain she cannot provide any patient information without the patient's consent.

Question 27

Please identify which of the following is a way to verify the diagnosis of rheumatic fever.

A	The patient has fever and painful joints
B	The patient has had sore throat for the past two weeks
C	The patient tests positive on Antistreptolysin O (ASO)
D	None of the above

Question 27 Explanation:

Fever, painful joints and a prolonged period of sore throat are all symptoms of rheumatic fever. The diagnosis can be verified if the patient has positive ASO titler.

Question 28

The last time a patient has received Vancomycin dose was at 10:00 am, when should the trough level be drawn?

A	11:00 am
B	9:30 am
C	9:30 pm
D	11:00 pm

Question 28 Explanation:

The trough level should be drawn at 9:30 am. It should be drawn right before the administration of the next dose.

Question 29

Please identify in which of the following statements, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is contraindicated in the patient.

A	The patient has a history of cardiovascular disease
B	The patient is claustrophobic
C	The patient has cardiac pacemaker
D	B and C
E	None of the above

Question 29 Explanation:

Claustrophobia and having a cardiac pacemaker can both render MRI contraindicated in a patient.

Question 30

Please identify which of the following patients is likely to benefit from therapist-guided exposure therapy.

A	A patient with a specific phobia
B	A patient with a severe skin rash
C	A patient with clinical depression
D	All of the above

Question 30 Explanation:

Therapist-guided exposure therapy can help patients with specific phobias.

Question 31

Please identify what would be an appropriate diet for a patient with iron deficiency anemia.

A	The diet includes dark green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, eggs and raisins
B	The diet includes white bread, pork and Greek yogurt
C	Burger and fries, muffins and cornbread
D	None of the above is appropriate

Question 31 Explanation:

An appropriate diet rich in iron for a patient with iron deficiency anemia can include dark green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, eggs and raisins.

Question 32

When transporting a patient with MRSA infection, what is a mandatory measure of precaution that the nurse need to observe?

A	The NP must wear a surgical mask and gloves
B	The NP should make sure the patient is not transported during daytime
C	The NP must put a surgical mask on the patient
D	None of the above

Question 32 Explanation:

When transporting a patient with MRSA infection, the NP is required to put a surgical mask on the patient when outside the room.

Question 33

Please indicate which clinical symptoms should a nurse expect to observe on a patient who has been declared as brain-dead.

A	Slight corneal reflex
B	A negative doll's eyes reflex
C	Delayed papillary response
D	None of the above

Question 33 Explanation:

On a patient, who has been declared as brain-dead, the NP should expect to observe a negative doll's eyes reflex, absent corneal reflex, and no papillary response.

Question 34

A chemotherapy patient with a low platelet count should be advised to...

A	avoid exposing themselves to a higher risk of contracting an infection.
B	avoid catching the flu
C	avoid activities that could lead to a physical injury
D	None of the above

Question 34 Explanation:

It is important that a chemotherapy patient with a low platelet count avoids activities that could lead to a physical injury.

Question 35

The increasingly more important evidence-based nursing care includes which of the following:

A	The use of informatics
B	The use of clinical knowledge
C	Finding and evaluating evidence for application in the nursing practice
D	All of the above

Question 35 Explanation:

Evidence-based nursing care includes using informatics, clinical knowledge and formal research, among others.

Question 36

Please identify in which of the following diagnosis Heparin would be indicated.

A	Deep venous thrombosis
B	Brain hemorrhage
C	Pulmonary embolism
D	All of the above
E	A and C

Question 36 Explanation:

Heparin is indicated for pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis and not for brain hemorrhage.

Question 37

A patient has experienced a MI and the sustained damage of the ventricle is approximately 60%. Please identify which of the following procedures would NOT be appropriate on this patient.

A	The insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump
B	The insertion of a chest tube
C	Angioplasty
D	None of the above

Question 37 Explanation:

The insertion of a chest tube would not be appropriate on this patient.

Question 38

Please identify which of the following most often leads to cardiogenic shock.

A	Deep vein thrombosis
B	MI (myocardial infarction)
C	Acute aortic dissection
D	None of the above

Question 38 Explanation:

MI (myocardial infarction) is a common cause for cardiogenic shock.

Question 39

Please identify which of the following falls among actions expected of a NP in a patient experiencing a convulsion (tonic-clonic seizure).

A	Removing unnecessary sharp and hard objects from the area
B	Loosening any tight garments on the patient
C	Holding down the person to minimize or stop the jerking
D	A and B
E	All of the above

Question 39 Explanation:

The proper way for the NP to handle a situation when a patient is experiencing a convulsion (tonic-clonic seizure) is to clear the environment of sharp and hard objects and loosen any tight garments on the patient, among others.

Question 40

Please identify which of the following fall among signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction of the contrast medium in a patient after a CT scan.

A	Tachycardia
B	Skin redness and swelling
C	Apnea
D	B and C
E	A and B

Question 40 Explanation:

A patient experiencing an adverse reaction to radiographic contrast media could have skin redness and swelling and tachycardia.

Question 41

Please identify which of the following can lead to a diagnosis of Guillian-Barre syndrome.

A	Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in the past 2 years
B	Mild respiratory or digestive tract infection
C	A minor viral infection
D	B and C
E	None of the above

Question 41 Explanation:

A mild respiratory or digestive tract infection and a minor viral infection can both be causes of Guillian-Barre syndrome.

Question 42

Please identify which of the following statements is correct about Phenytoin.

A	Phenytoin should not be added to dextrose-containing solutions
B	Phenytoin can only be administered intravenously
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 42 Explanation:

Phenytoin should not be added to dextrose-containing solutions. Besides IV, Phenytoin can also be taken orally.

Question 43

Please identify which of the following is an appropriate action for a patient with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia in terms of preventing infection.

A	Rinsing the patient's mouth with saline soluion
B	Checking vital signs frequently
C	Administering an antibiotic in case of a rapidly decreasing white blood cell count
D	All of the above

Question 43 Explanation:

All of the above are appropriate when caring for a patient with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia, in terms of avoiding infection.

Question 44

When talking to a 29-year-old male obese patient is complaining of chest pain. The NP learns that the patient's father and mother have both had myocardial infraction at the age of 38 and 46 respectively. Which of the following would be an appropriate action for the nurse?

A	Prepare a meal plan for the patient that excludes high-calorie food
B	Ask the patient if he would be willing to take part in a weight loss program
C	Explain the patient that obesity increases the risk for MI
D	None of the above

Question 44 Explanation:

In this case the nurse should ask the patient if he would be willing to take part in a weight loss program, since fast reduction of weight is crucial in this case to lower his risk of suffering an MI.

Question 45

Please identify which of the following is an appropriate action in the process of weaning from mechanical ventilation.

A	Discontinuing the mechanical ventilation
B	Removing the artificial airways
C	Performing controlled mandatory ventilation
D	All of the above

Question 45 Explanation:

Performing controlled mandatory ventilation is not a action that belongs to the process of weaning from mechanical ventilation.

Question 46

A patient, who has been administered a dose of Nitroglycerin orally 4 minutes ago (0.04 mg), has a hart rate of 121 and complains of severe chest pain. Please identify what would be a priority action for the nurse in this case.

A	Request an ECG
B	Administer morphine IV injection
C	Give a second tablet of 0.04 mg Nitroglycerin
D	None of the above

Question 46 Explanation:

In order to relieve the patient’s chest pain, a second dose of a 0.04 mg Nitroglycerin tablet should be administered first, since up to three Nitroglycerin tablets can be given in the course of 15 minutes.

Question 47

Please identify which of the following belong to the signs and symptoms of Hypovolemic shock (early stages).

A	Rapid and shallow breathing
B	Rapid heartbeat
C	Low blood pressure
D	A and B
E	All of the above

Question 47 Explanation:

Signs and symptoms of Hypovolemic shock (early stages) include rapid and shallow breathing and rapid heartbeat, among others. Hypotension does not appear in the early stages of hypovolemic shock.

Question 48

Please identify which of the following is among the causes of Acute Respiratory Acidosis.

A	A drop in the respiratory rate
B	Hypoventilation
C	Hypertension
D	All of the above
E	A and B

Question 48 Explanation:

A diminished respiratory rate and hypoventilation can both cause Acute Respiratory Acidosis.

Question 49

For safe aspiration during an Abdominal Paracentesis, please identify what would be the upper limit for fluid to be removed.

A	From 1,000 - 1,500 mL
B	From 1,500 - 2,000 mL
C	From 2,000 - 2,500 mL
D	None of the above

Question 49 Explanation:

The upper limit for fluid to be aspirated during an Abdominal Paracentesis is from 1,500 - 2,000 mL.

Question 50

Please identify which of the following is a symptom of Increased Intracranial Pressure.

A	Sluggish pupils
B	Pupils are unequal in size
C	The patient is confused and has changes in behavior
D	Extreme weakness
E	All of the above

Question 50 Explanation:

All of the above statements fall among the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure.

Question 51

Please mark what is reference range for the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

A	0.5-1.5 times the normal value.
B	1.5-2.5 times the normal value.
C	2.5-2.9 times the normal value.
D	None of the above

Question 51 Explanation:

The reference range for the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 1.5-2.5 times the normal value.

Question 52

A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome was admitted. Please identify which of the following as a priority action for the nurse.

A	Oxygen therapy to increase and maintain the blood oxygen levels
B	Mechanical ventilation
C	Administering glucose Intravenous Infusion
D	None of the above

Question 52 Explanation:

A priority action for the NP in a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome is to increase and maintain the blood oxygen levels by providing oxygen therapy. Only if this fails is mechanical ventilation in order.

Question 53

Please identify what would be the likely complication in case the constant positive airway pressure value is greater than 10 cm H20.

A	It could increase blood pressure
B	It could lower blood pressure
C	It could increase respiration
D	None of the above

Question 53 Explanation:

In case the constant positive airway pressure value is greater than 10 cm H20, it could lower blood pressure.

Question 54

Which of the following is likely to be administered in the case of a patient with Helicobacter pylori infection.

A	Metronidazole
B	Tetracyucline
C	Zanamivir
D	None of the above
E	A and B

Question 54 Explanation:

The treatment of a patient with Helicobacter pylori infection will likely include the antibiotics Metronidazole or Tetracyucline.

Question 55

Please identify which of the following is found among the Virchow’s triad, or the three factors that show predisposition to developing venous thrombosis.

A	Venous stasis
B	Vein injury
C	Blood clotting
D	All of the above

Question 55 Explanation:

All of the above are part of Virchow’s triad, or the three factors that show predisposition to developing venous thrombosis.

Question 56

A patient has had diarrhea and vomiting for the past three days. What additional symptoms at the time of the patient's admittance could indicate a Hypovolemic shock?

A	Hypotension
B	The extremities are feeling cold
C	Elevated heart rate
D	All of the above

Question 56 Explanation:

All of the above are symptoms that the patient may have reached a state of Hypovolemic shock.

Question 57

Please identify the immediate indication of GI bleeding in a sepsis patient.

A	Noticing blood in the stool
B	The stool is black and tarry
C	The patient complains of severe abdominal pain
D	A and B
E	None of the above

Question 57 Explanation:

If the patient's stool contains blood or is black and tarry, these are symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.

Question 58

A patient with a GI bleeding is being administered IV fluids and packed red blood cell transfusion. Please identify which of the following complications the NP should be monitoring the patient for.

A	Hemorrhagic shock
B	Perforation
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 58 Explanation:

Perforation and hemorrhagic shock are both possible complications in this case.

Question 59

What would a nurse expect to see reflected on a patient's 12 lead ECG if the patient has an evolving MI.

A	The ST segment is abnormally elevated
B	The ST segment is abnormally depressed
C	Q waves of 0.04 seconds or more
D	None of the above

Question 59 Explanation:

The NP should observe that the ST segment is abnormally elevated.

Question 60

After three hours of Thrombolytic Therapy, which of the following is an indication that the therapy is effective?

A	The patient feels less pain in the chest
B	The ST interval was brought back to normal levels
C	A and B
D	None of the above

Question 60 Explanation:

Both ST interval back to normal and less intense chest pain can indicate successful Thrombolytic Therapy, among other signs.

Question 61

Please identify which of the following patients has an increased risk of a septic shock.

A	A 62 year old man with pleural effusion and hypertension
B	A 57 year old man with a coronary artery bypass.
C	An 81 year old diabetic man with an urinary catheter and a stage III pressure ulcer
D	None of the above

Question 61 Explanation:

Having an urinary catheter, stage III pressure ulcer, and diabetes are all risk factors for septic shock.

Question 62

The pharyngeal reflex or laryngeal spasm is controlled by the...

A	VIII cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear)
B	IV cranial nerve (trochlear)
C	IX cranial nerve (glossopharyngeal)
D	X cranial nerve (vagus)

Question 62 Explanation:

The pharyngeal reflex or laryngeal spasm, also known as gag reflex, is controlled by the IX cranial nerve (glossopharyngeal nerve).

Question 63

A patient has been admitted for heart failure for the third time in the past 13 months. Please identify what would be an appropriate nursing action in such as case.

A	Change her medication to a higher dose
B	Informing the patient thoroughly on necessary lifestyle changes and principles of management of the disease
C	Order weekly checkups
D	None of the above

Question 63 Explanation:

An appropriate nursing action in such as case would be to inform the patient thoroughly on necessary lifestyle changes and principles of management of the disease.

Question 64

Please identify which of the following statements refers to a case when mechanical ventilation would be the most needed.

A	A patient with sleep apnea experiencing multiple breathing stops
B	A patient whose oxygen saturation level stands at 86%
C	A patient has breathing problems and shortness of breath
D	None of the above

Question 64 Explanation:

Mechanical ventilation would be the most needed by the patient who has breathing problems and shortness of breath.

Question 65

Heart failure can usually be diagnosed by observing deterioration in the...

A	Left atrium
B	Right atrium
C	Left ventricular function
D	Right ventricular function

Question 65 Explanation:

Heart failure can usually be diagnosed by observing deterioration in the left ventricular function.

Question 66

Please identify the most likely drug to be used for a patient with worsening symptoms of heart failure, who has previously been on a beta blockers therapy at home.

A	Lisinopril
B	Primacor (milrinone)
C	Dopamine
D	None of the above

Question 66 Explanation:

Primacor (milrinone) would be the most likely medication in this case.

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