Adult Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

Adult Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

Our Adult Nurse Practitioner Exam Test will test your nurse practitioner knowledge and expertise in order to become a professional Adult Nurse Practitioner.

The test contains 70 questions from the American Academy of Nurse Practitioners Certification Program (AANCP) and covers domains such as planning, assessment, diagnosis, and evaluation.

Adult Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

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Question 1
What are the most common areas of herniation?
A
L4-L5; L5-S1
B
L1-L2; L4-L5
C
S1-S2; S2-S3
D
L2-L3; L3-L4
Question 1 Explanation: 
L4-L5; L5-S1 is where herniated discs usually occur due to the carrying of body weight.
Question 2
Patients with multiple myeloma are at risk for:
A
decreased motility of the gastrointestinal tract
B
diarrhea
C
hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
D
twitches
Question 2 Explanation: 
Decreased motility of the gastrointestinal tract is a sign of hypercalcemia.
Question 3
Please mark the incorrect definition of classification of fractures:
A
Open: bone pierces skin
B
Comminuted: bone is crushed into many pieces
C
Greenstick: bone cracks through one side only
D
Complete: bone bends but does not break
Question 3 Explanation: 
Complete: bone bends but does not break- refers to the breaking of the entire width of the bone.
Question 4
Please mark the incorrect statement for Von Willebrand disease:
A
It allows adhesion of platelets to a glycoprotein Ib-IX.
B
This disease is a qualitative platelet defect.
C
There is only moderate deficiency.
D
This disease functions independent of factor VIII.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Von Willebrand disease functions independent of factor VIII.
Question 5
Please mark the symptoms that indicate fat emboli:
A
Bradypnea, bradycardia, confusion, shortness of breath
B
Bradypnea, bradycardia, decreased temperature, shortness of breath
C
Tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated temperature, shortness of breath
D
Tachypnea, tachycardia, confusion, shortness of breath
Question 5 Explanation: 
Tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated temperature, shortness of breath are symptoms of fat emboli.
Question 6
Please mark which of the following characterizes iron deficiency anemia:
A
Decreased MCV and decreased RDW
B
Increased MCV and an increased RDW
C
Decreased MCV and an increased RDW
D
Decreased MCV and an increased MCHC
Question 6 Explanation: 
Decreased MCV and an increased RDW are lab values that reflect iron deficiency anemia.
Question 7
Please mark the condition of a patient who is diagnosed with bradycardia and severe hypertension after a spinal cord injury 48 hours ago which was assessed with diaphoresis, flushed face and neck, and severe headache.
A
Spinal shock
B
Autonomic dysreflexia
C
Pulmonary embolism
D
Malignant hypertension
Question 7 Explanation: 
The patient has an autonomic dysreflexia.
Question 8
Please mark the clients who are not contraindicated to receive a MMR vaccine:
A
A female with a history of hypersensitive reactions to neomycin
B
A female at 12 weeks gestation
C
A female with HIV and the condition of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D
A school-age child with HIV
Question 8 Explanation: 
A school-age child with HIV can receive MMR vaccine,
Question 9
Please mark the symptom that doesn't indicate internal bleeding:
A
Vomiting of bile
B
Hematomas
C
Deformed extremities
D
Board- like abdomen
Question 9 Explanation: 
Vomiting of bile is not a sign of internal bleeding.
Question 10
Please mark the sign of severe anemia in a patient:
A
Pedal edema
B
A bluish color over the abdomen
C
Jerking of the wrist and arm when the blood pressure cuff is applied
D
Abnormalities in nails
Question 10 Explanation: 
Abnormalities in nails such as spoon shape, long shaped striations and clubbing indicate severe anemia.
Question 11
Please mark the next step that ought to be taken after taking ANA as the initial screening test for systemic lupus erythematosus:
A
Ordering for an Anti-DS DNA
B
Prescription of ibuprofen
C
Prescription of prednisone or another glucocorticoid
D
Ordering for Anti-citrullinated cyclic peptide
Question 11 Explanation: 
Ordering for an Anti-DS DNA should follow the initial screening test for systemic lupus erythematosus.
Question 12
Please mark the priority during a recurrent episode of seizure in a patient who had a tonic-clonic seizure and fell down:
A
Immediate restrain
B
Tongue depressor at the bedside
C
Oxygen at the bedside
D
Diazepam at the bedside
Question 12 Explanation: 
Oxygen at the bedside should be at the bedside of this patient.
Question 13
Septic shock can:
A
be caused by gram-positive bacteria
B
be caused due to exotoxin release
C
cause vasodilation
D
be caused by injury to the CNS
Question 13 Explanation: 
Septic shock can cause vasodilation.
Question 14
What causes primary osteoarthritis?
A
Overuse of joints, obesity, diabetes mellitus
B
Overuse of joints, obesity, aging
C
Diabetes mellitus, a congenital abnormality, obesity
D
All of the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Overuse of joints, obesity, aging may cause primary osteoarthritis.
Question 15
Please mark the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome:
A
The patient has pain in passive movement, inability to perform active movements, decreased sensation
B
The patient experiences pain with active movement, inability to perform passive movements, weakness
C
The patient experiences pain with passive movement, inability to perform an active movement, weakness
D
The patient has pain with active movement, inability to perform passive movements, pallor
Question 15 Explanation: 
The symptoms are: pain in passive movement, inability to perform active movements and decreased sensation.
Question 16
What should a patient with HIV receive in order to avoid the common complication of infection?
A
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
B
Antifungal medications
C
Pain medications
D
Empiric antibiotics
Question 16 Explanation: 
Empiric antibiotics should be given to this patient to avoid the common complication of an infection.
Question 17
Please mark the most plausible diagnosis of a patient who was bitten by a tick 2 weeks ago:
A
Rubella
B
Diphtheria
C
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D
Infectious mononucleosis
Question 17 Explanation: 
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by the bit of a tick, i.e. Rickettsia rickettsii.
Question 18
A patient with bronchial hyperreactivity, airway inflammation, mucus plugging, and smooth muscle hypertrophy is most likely to be diagnosed with:
A
Asthma
B
Emphysema
C
Pulmonary edema
D
Pneumonia
Question 18 Explanation: 
Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, mucus plugging, bronchial hyperreactivity, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
Question 19
If a woman's genitals appear fungating, cauliflower-like eruptions indicate which of the STD symptoms of human papillomavirus:
A
Mental deterioration
B
Cervical malignancy
C
Ophthalmia neonatorum
D
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Question 19 Explanation: 
Cervical malignancy is a symptom of human papillomavirus.
Question 20
Please mark the description of a decorticate posturing:
A
The ankle and great toe dorsiflex with fanning of the other toes.
B
Rigidly extended arms and legs.
C
Decorticate posturing is the flexing of one or both arms onto the chest, with the legs extending rigidly.
D
No motor response in extremities.
Question 20 Explanation: 
Decorticate posturing is the flexing of one or both arms onto the chest, with the legs extending rigidly.
Question 21
Please mark the exception of clinical features of Sturge- Weber syndrome:
A
Sturge-Weber syndrome' anticonvulsants are an optional drug.
B
Sturge-Weber syndrome initially manifests as a seizure.
C
Sturge-Weber syndrome almost never affects body organs.
D
Sturge-Weber syndrome is a congenital neurological and skin disorder.
Question 21 Explanation: 
Sturge-Weber syndrome' anticonvulsants are an optional drug.
Question 22
Please mark the disorder which is usually not treated with antidepressants:
A
An eating disorder
B
An obsessive-compulsive disorder
C
A post-traumatic stress disorder
D
A bipolar disorder
Question 22 Explanation: 
A bipolar disorder is usually not treated with antidepressants.
Question 23
Please mark the atypical antipsychotic drugs:
A
Valproic acid, Carbamazepine, Sodium Valproate
B
Seroquel, Risperdal, Olanzapine
C
Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine, Fluphenazine
D
Alpralozam, Chlordiazepoxide, Lorazepam
Question 23 Explanation: 
Seroquel, Risperdal, Olanzapine are atypical antipsychotic drugs.
Question 24
Please mark what is true about expressive aphasia:
A
Damage occurs in the Broca’s area.
B
Patients are not able to use objects correctly.
C
Patients don't understand spoken and written words.
D
The damage occurs in Wernicke’s area.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Damage occurs in the Broca’s area when it comes to expressive aphasia.
Question 25
Hemoptysis is a clinical symptom of emphysema. Is it true or false?
A
True
B
False
Question 25 Explanation: 
False. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood and/or blood-streaked sputum.
Question 26
Please mark the most definitive test for tuberculosis:
A
Sputum culture
B
Tuberculin test
C
Chest x-ray
D
Mantoux test
Question 26 Explanation: 
Sputum culture is the most definitive test for tuberculosis.
Question 27
Please mark the symptoms of severe persistent asthma:
A
An acute exacerbation that doesn't respond to routine therapies
B
Continual symptoms that limit physical activities, frequent exacerbations that take time to respond to treatments
C
Exacerbations of symptoms affecting activities, nighttime symptoms
D
Brief asthma attacks of varied intensity, normal peak expiratory flow rate between attacks, nighttime symptoms
Question 27 Explanation: 
Continual symptoms that limit physical activities, frequent exacerbations that take time to respond to treatments indicate severe persistent asthma.
Question 28
A history of hypertension increases a woman, who is in gestation, the risk for:
A
Spontaneous abortion
B
Anemia
C
Placenta previa
D
Abruptio placenta
Question 28 Explanation: 
Abruptio placenta may appear as a result of a history of hypertension.
Question 29
When is a patient contraindicated for magnetic resonance imaging?
A
If the patient has craniotomy.
B
If the patient has claustrophobia.
C
If the patient has an implanted defibrillator.
D
If the patient has uncontrolled hypertension.
Question 29 Explanation: 
If the patient has an implanted defibrillator, they are contraindicated for magnetic resonance imaging.
Question 30
In what patients is lumbar puncture contraindicated?
A
Patients with low back pain.
B
Patients with increased bone fragility.
C
Patients with increased intracranial pressure.
D
Patients with decreased cardiac output.
Question 30 Explanation: 
Patients with increased intracranial pressure are contraindicated for lumbar puncture.
Question 31
Please mark a woman's GP-TPAL in the following case: (Abortions 3), first at 12 weeks gestation, second at 21 weeks (included in Parity because it occurred after 20 weeks), third at 10 weeks (not included in Parity). A child born at 42 weeks gestation (Term), a second child born at 41 weeks (Term), and a set of twins at 37 weeks of gestation (2 Preterm not taken as 1 birth).
A
G7P3-T2P2A3L4
B
G7P4 -T2P2A3L4
C
G7P5-T1P2A3L4
D
G7P4-T2P1A3L4
Question 31 Explanation: 
G7P4 -T2P2A3L4
Question 32
Please mark the best initial test for a suspected Paget’s disease:
A
X-ray
B
Urinary hydroxyproline
C
Alkaline phosphatase
D
Bone scan
Question 32 Explanation: 
Alkaline phosphatase is the best initial test for a suspected Paget’s disease.
Question 33
What are the adverse effects of ritodrine?
A
Water intoxication
B
Uterine rupture
C
Hypotension
D
Pulmonary edema
Question 33 Explanation: 
Pulmonary edema is one of the adverse effects of ritodrine.
Question 34
Please mark the symptoms that don't indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity:
A
Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B
Seizures
C
Knee jerk reflex +1
D
Blood pressure reading of 70/40
Question 34 Explanation: 
Seizures are one of the symptoms that don't indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 35
Please mark the condition that is not related to pale skin:
A
Emotional distress
B
Shock
C
Decreased blood pressure
D
Late stages of carbon monoxide poisoning
Question 35 Explanation: 
Late stages of carbon monoxide poisoning is not related to pale skin as a symptom.
Question 36
Please mark one of the following which is not a chronic complication of prolonged hypertension:
A
Neuropathy
B
Asthma
C
Diabetes
D
Renal failure
Question 36 Explanation: 
Asthma is not a chronic complication of prolonged hypertension.
Question 37
Please mark which of the following assesses intraocular pressure:
A
Tonometry
B
Computed tomography
C
Fluorescein angiography
D
Slit lamp
Question 37 Explanation: 
Tonometry is a method that is used to assess intraocular pressure.
Question 38
Please mark the names that mark the layers of the skin from most superficial to deepest:
A
Dermis, subcutaneous fatty tissue, epidermis
B
Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous fatty tissue
C
Epidermis, subcutaneous fatty tissue, dermis
D
Dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous fatty tissue
Question 38 Explanation: 
Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous fatty tissue
Question 39
Infarction of the base or inferior wall of the left ventricle is caused by:
A
Occlusion in the left anterior descending artery
B
Occlusion in the marginal branch of the circumflex artery
C
Occlusion in the right coronary artery
D
Occlusion in the lateral branch of the circumflex artery
Question 39 Explanation: 
Infarction of the base or inferior wall of the left ventricle is caused by occlusion in the right coronary artery.
Question 40
Please mark the endocrine disorder that cannot contribute to secondary hypertension:
A
Pheochromocytoma
B
Hypoaldosteronism
C
Diabetes
D
Cushing syndrome
Question 40 Explanation: 
Hypoaldosteronism is an endocrine disorder that cannot contribute to secondary hypertension.
Question 41
Please mark where fungal infections are commonly found:
A
Organs
B
Blood
C
Skin
D
All of the above
Question 41 Explanation: 
Fungal infections are commonly found on the skin.
Question 42
Please mark the indications of pilocarpine toxicity:
A
Tremors
B
Vertigo
C
Bradycardia
D
Hypertension
Question 42 Explanation: 
Hypertension is one of the indications of pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine).
Question 43
Please mark the main indicators of cataracts:
A
Diplopia
B
Floaters
C
Eye pain
D
Blurred vision
Question 43 Explanation: 
Blurred vision is once of the main manifestation of cataracts.
Question 44
Please mark the most powerful predictor of right ventricular infarction involvement in 10 hours of the following symptoms such as clear lung fields, elevated jugular pressure, and hypotension:
A
ST-segment depression in lead V3R
B
ST-segment elevation in lead V4R
C
ST-segment elevation in lead V1
D
ST-segment elevation in lead V3R
Question 44 Explanation: 
ST-segment elevation in lead V4R is the most powerful predictor of right ventricular infarction involvement in 10 hours of the symptoms.
Question 45
Please mark the manifestations of a Gardnerella vaginalis:
A
Mucoid and purulent discharge
B
Frothy, foamy, yellow-green vaginal discharge
C
Gray and thin discharge with a strong fish-like odor
D
Thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge
Question 45 Explanation: 
Gray and thin discharge with a strong fish-like odor is one of the symptoms of Gardnerella vaginalis.
Question 46
What's the use of mydriatics, such as cyclopentolate?
A
They are used for corneal anesthesia
B
They are used to constrict the pupil and contract the ciliary muscles
C
They are used to add moisture to the eyes
D
They are used to dilate the pupil and relax the ciliary muscles
Question 46 Explanation: 
Mydriatics are used to dilate the pupil and relax the ciliary muscles.
Question 47
Please mark the diagnostic test used to evaluate the ocular circulation of the eye:
A
Corneal staining
B
Fluorescein angiography
C
Slit lamp
D
Computed tomography
Question 47 Explanation: 
Fluorescein angiography provides detailed imaging and recording of ocular circulation.
Question 48
A shallow ulcer with pink to red base indicates:
A
Stage I ulcer
B
Stage II ulcer
C
Stage III ulcer
D
Stage IV ulcer
Question 48 Explanation: 
Stage II ulcer is characterized by a shallow ulcer with a pink to a red base.
Question 49
Please mark the most plausible diagnosis following the assessment of pulsus paradoxus in a patient:
A
Cardiac tamponade
B
Pericardial effusion
C
Chronic constrictive pericarditis
D
Pericarditis
Question 49 Explanation: 
Cardiac tamponade is usually manifested by pulsus paradoxus.
Question 50
Please mark the statement which is true regarding electrophysiologic properties of the cardiac cells:
A
The impulse does not spread throughout the heart muscle when one cell is stimulated.
B
Contractility is an electrical property while automaticity and conductivity are mechanical properties.
C
Myocardial muscles do not respond in an all-or-nothing manner
D
Myocardial cells cannot initiate an electrical impulse.
Question 50 Explanation: 
Myocardial cells cannot initiate an electrical impulse regarding the electrophysiologic properties of the cardiac cells.
Question 51
Where should the positive electrode be placed to monitor lead III?
A
The positive electrode should be on the patient’s left leg while the negative on the right
B
The positive electrode should be on the left arm while the negative on the right arm.
C
The positive electrode should be on the left arm while the negative on the right arm.
D
The positive electrode should be on the left leg while the negative on the left arm.
Question 51 Explanation: 
The positive electrode should be on the left leg while the negative on the left arm.
Question 52
The left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a marker of the condition:
A
VSD
B
Severe aortic valve disease
C
Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
D
Congenital heart disease
Question 52 Explanation: 
Severe aortic valve disease is a condition marked by the left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Question 53
Please mark the pre=procedure instructions and actions for colonoscopy:
A
NPO prior the procedure
B
The patient should lie on the left side with the knees drawn up to the chest
C
There is no need of adequate cleansing of the colon
D
The patient should start a clear liquid diet on the day before the test
Question 53 Explanation: 
The patient should lie on the left side with the knees drawn up to the chest.
Question 54
Please mark the condition that is not linked to dialysis:
A
Thrombosis
B
Infection of vascular access
C
Hepatitis A
D
Steal syndrome
Question 54 Explanation: 
Hepatitis A is not linked to dialysis but Hepatitis B.
Question 55
Please mark the medications that are not administered during the active phase of peptic ulcer disease:
A
Prostaglandins
B
Anticholinergics
C
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
D
Antacids
Question 55 Explanation: 
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are not administered during the active phase of peptic ulcer disease.
Question 56
The bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area caused by hemorrhagic, severe pancreatitis is called:
A
Murphy’s sign
B
Turner’s sign
C
Cullen’s sign
D
Spider angioma
Question 56 Explanation: 
The bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area caused by hemorrhagic, severe pancreatitis is called Cullen’s sign.
Question 57
Please mark the indicator of the icteric stage of Hepatitis A:
A
Pruritus
B
Elevated serum bilirubin and enzymes
C
Increased energy levels
D
Flu-like symptoms
Question 57 Explanation: 
Pruritus is usually one of the indicators of hepatitis.
Question 58
Please mark the leading race group that is most likely to suffer from celiac disease:
A
Native America
B
African Americans
C
Caucasians of European descent
D
Asian
Question 58 Explanation: 
Caucasians of European descent are most commonly affected by celiac sprue.
Question 59
Please mark the symptoms that ought to be considered when Cushing's syndrome is diagnosed:
A
Truncal obesity, buffalo hump, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia
B
Hirsutism, purple striae, weight loss
C
Osteoporosis, hypernatremia, hypotension
D
Dysmenorrhea, polydipsia, renal calculi
Question 59 Explanation: 
Truncal obesity, buffalo hump, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia are symptoms of Cushing's syndrome.
Question 60
Please mark the cranial nerve that is assessed in a case when a patient's cornea is being touched with a wisp of cotton:
A
Cranial nerve VI
B
Cranial nerve V
C
Cranial nerve IV
D
Cranial nerve II
Question 60 Explanation: 
Cranial nerve V is being assessed when the patient's cornea is touched with a wisp of cotton.
Question 61
Please mark the procedure that is best when screening for impotence:
A
Gonadotropin assay
B
Penile blood pressure studies
C
Sexual history and physical examination
D
Serum testosterone
Question 61 Explanation: 
Sexual history and physical examination should be considered before additional laboratory tests are taken.
Question 62
Please mark the location of the Bartholin gland:
A
It is below and to the left and right of the vaginal opening
B
It extends from the vulva to the cervix
C
It is above the urethral and vaginal opening
D
The anterior wall of the vagina
Question 62 Explanation: 
The Bartholin gland is below and to the left and right of the vaginal opening.
Question 63
Kidney failure caused by a reduction of blood supply to the kidneys is also known as:
A
Renal azotemia
B
Pre-renal azotemia
C
Post-renal azotemia
D
All of the above
Question 63 Explanation: 
Pre-renal azotemia is a type of kidney failure caused by a reduction of blood supply to the kidneys.
Question 64
Please mark the stapling screening procedure for prostatic hypertrophy:
A
TRU
B
PSA
C
DRE
D
Prostate biopsy
Question 64 Explanation: 
DRE or digital rectal examination will provide a solid diagnosis.
Question 65
Please mark the indicators of diabetes insipidus:
A
Weight gain
B
Polydipsia
C
Hypertension
D
Changes in consciousness
Question 65 Explanation: 
Polydipsia is one of the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
Question 66
Please mark the statement that is not correct regarding Type I Diabetes patients:
A
Beta islet cells are destroyed in Type I Diabetes.
B
Type I Diabetes Patients don't require insulin injections.
C
Type I Diabetes's onset prior to age 20 in most cases.
D
Type I Diabetes may be referred to autoimmunity.
Question 66 Explanation: 
Patients require insulin injections in Type I Diabetes.
Question 67
Please mark the anti-thyroid medication that inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones:
A
Liotrix (Thyrolar)
B
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
C
Liothyronine (Cytomel)
D
Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Question 67 Explanation: 
Propylthiouracil (PTU) should be ordered in this case of thyroid gland disfunction.
Question 68
What complication may be avoided when administering insulin by rotating injection sites?
A
Insulin lipodystrophy
B
Increased bleeding
C
Increased resistance to insulin
D
Hypersensitivity
Question 68 Explanation: 
Insulin lipodystrophy may be avoided if insulin is administered with the rotation of injection sites.
Question 69
Please mark the incorrect statement about Burkitt's lymphoma:
A
Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with Epstein Barr
B
Burkitt’s lymphoma has high-grade T-cell malignancy
C
Burkitt’s lymphoma is a form of non- Hodgkin lymphoma
D
Burkitt’s lymphoma indicates a cytogenic chromosomal change
Question 69 Explanation: 
Burkitt’s lymphoma has high-grade B-cell malignancy that spreads beyond the lymph nodes.
Question 70
Please mark one of the following which is not related to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
A
A genetic predilection in men
B
Normal production and secretion of ADH
C
Sensitized kidney tubules to ADH
D
Production of large volumes of dilute urine
Question 70 Explanation: 
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidney’s resistance to the ADH hormone instead by its deficiency.
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