Phlebotomy Practice Test: Get Ready for Your Phlebotomy Exam!

Phlebotomy Practice Test

The Certified Phlebotomy Technician exam covers the following topics: patient preparation, collection techniques, processing and safety, and compliance considerations.

This exam masters future phlebotomists’ confidence in their skills and abilities and helps them acquire a CPT (phlebotomy certification) that will improve their healthcare career.

Good luck!

Phlebotomist Exam Prep

Congratulations - you have completed Phlebotomist Exam Prep. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Please mark the name of the blood cell which is responsible for transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide:
A
Leukocyte
B
Platelets
C
Erythrocyte
D
I didn’t hear the question
Question 1 Explanation: 
Erythrocytes, known as red blood cells transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Question 2
Please mark the blood vessels that flow from the heart to the body tissues and whose vessel walls contain smooth muscle:
A
Venous blood vessels
B
Arterial blood vessels
C
Capillary blood vessels
Question 2 Explanation: 
The arterial blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body tissues.
Question 3
Please mark the 3 most common arm veins used in phlebotomy:
A
Median cubital, basalmic, and radial veins.
B
Antecubital fossa, median cubital and cephalic veins.
C
Cephalic, median cubital and basilic veins.
D
Antecubital, median cubital and basilic veins.
Question 3 Explanation: 
The cephalic, median cubital and basilic veins are the three most common arm veins used in phlebotomy.
Question 4
Please mark the location of the antecubital fossa:
A
The bend of the elbow, the front of the arm.
B
The bend of the elbow, back of the arm.
C
The bend of the elbow, the outer side of the arm.
D
The bend of the elbow, the inner side of the arm.
Question 4 Explanation: 
The antecubital fossa is located at the bend of the elbow, on the front side of the arm.
Question 5
Please mark the official term that describes a type of blood cell that defends the body from bacteria, viruses,  parasites, and allergens:
A
Eosinophils
B
Basophils
C
Monocytes
D
Neutrophils
Question 5 Explanation: 
Basophils is a white blood cell responsible for an allergic reaction in case of allergen invasion.
Question 6
Please mark the organ that is the largest filter in the human body and a part of both the circulatory and digestive systems:
A
The lungs
B
The kidneys
C
The liver
Question 6 Explanation: 
The liver is the body’s largest filter, and part of both the circulatory and digestive systems.
Question 7
Please mark the system which detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs or coordinates a response:
A
The circulatory system.
B
The respiratory system.
C
The nervous system.
D
The endocrine system.
Question 7 Explanation: 
The nervous system detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs or coordinates a response.
Question 8
Please mark the system whose primary function is air-supply and contains cilia, hair-like structures that function as tiny filters:
A
Circulatory system
B
Respiratory system
C
Digestive system
D
A metal band in the '90s
Question 8 Explanation: 
The respiratory system's primary function is air-supply and it also contains cilia, hair-like structures that function as tiny filters.
Question 9
The fibrinogen is found in the:
A
Whole blood
B
Plasma
C
Serum
Question 9 Explanation: 
The fibrinogen is contained in the blood plasma.
Question 10
Please mark the description of the pathway involved in the formation and excretion of urine:
A
Nephrons in the kidneys filter blood, draining the waste products into the floor of the kidney, ureters drain the urine from the kidneys into the bladder, and the urethra drains the bladder, passing urine outside of the body.
B
Nephrons in the kidneys filter blood, draining the waste products into the floor of the kidney, the urethra drains the urine from the kidneys into the bladder, and the ureters drain the bladder passing urine outside of the body.
C
The bladder produces urine from the ureters; the urethra drains the bladder of urine to outside the body.
Question 10 Explanation: 
The pathway involved for formation and excretion of urine involves nephrons in the kidneys filter blood, draining the waste products into the floor of the kidney, ureters drain the urine from the kidneys into the bladder, and the urethra drains the bladder, passing urine outside of the body.
Question 11
A phlebotomy tech is about to collect a blood specimen from a patient and during the examination, they observe areas of pinpoint and red dots over both of the patient’s arms. Please mark the clinical name for this phenomenon:
A
Petechiae- indicating possible excessive bleeding after blood collection.
B
Measles- indicating possible infectious disease exposure.
C
Psoriasis- indicating a possible skin disorder and should be avoided as a potential venipuncture site.
Question 11 Explanation: 
If pinpoint red dots appear on the body, this phenomenon is known as petechiae, indicating possible excessive bleeding after blood collection.
Question 12
A phlebotomy tech is about to collect a blood specimen from a patient and during the examination of the patient's arm for a potential site, the tech notices the presence of petechiae on both patient's arms. The tech understands the meaning of this and thus, they proceed with the venipuncture and allow extra time to assure themselves that the bleeding has stopped before they leave the patient. Why did the tech do this?
A
Petechiae indicate possible clotting problems.
B
Petechia indicates possible blood pressure problems.
C
Petechia indicates possible infectious disease.
D
Petechia indicates possible areas of inflammation.
Question 12 Explanation: 
The phlebotomy tech knows that the petechiae indicate possible clotting problems.
Question 13
Which of the following is not something that the phlebotomists should consider when working with older adults?
A
Mobility issues
B
Visual acuity
C
Provide a protective environment
D
Thin fragile veins
Question 13 Explanation: 
When working with older adults, the phlebotomists should provide a protective environment.
Question 14
Please mark one of the following considerations which is not special regarding working with newborns:
A
Providing a protective environment.
B
Accurately monitoring the total volume of withdrawn blood.
C
Ensuring warmth.
D
Using protective restraints where necessary.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Regarding working with newborns, protective restraints should be used where necessary.
Question 15
The phlebotomy tech is gathering arterial puncture and has gathered equipment such as heparin solution of 1,000 IU per ml, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, sterile needle, and syringe. Please mark the equipment element which the tech has forgotten:
A
A container of ice water.
B
Alcohol wipes.
C
Tourniquet.
D
Requisition form.
Question 15 Explanation: 
The tech has forgotten a container of ice water.
Question 16
Please mark the difference between fainting and hypovolemic shock:
A
Hypovolemic shock is a medical emergency.
B
Fainting is a medical emergency.
C
Fainting may be caused by an emotional reaction or pain.
D
A and C
Question 16 Explanation: 
Fainting is not a medical emergency while hypovolemic shock is.
Question 17
A phlebotomy tech performed their first venipuncture with a syringe.  While collecting the specimen he had in mind not to pull up too quickly on the plunger or to push it forcefully when transferring the blood from the syringe to the specimen container.  The special precautions serve to prevent:
A
Bacterial contamination
B
Adulteration of the specimen
C
Hemolysis
D
A needle stick accident
Question 17 Explanation: 
These precautions will help prevent hemolysis of the specimen.
Question 18
The phlebotomy tech is about to perform venipuncture on a patient who had a mastectomy on the right side. Please mark the precautions that ought to be observed for this patient:
A
The tech should avoid the right arm.
B
The tech should keep the patient in a flat position.
C
There are no special precautions for this situation.
Question 18 Explanation: 
Drawing blood from an arm on the same side as a mastectomy may result in infection for the patient and invalid or inaccurate test results.
Question 19
Please mark the symptoms of a latex allergy:
A
Skin redness, hives
B
Shortness of breath
C
A runny nose, watery eyes
D
All of the above
Question 19 Explanation: 
The symptoms of latex allergy are skin redness, hives, shortness of breath, runny nose and watery eyes.
Question 20
The phlebotomy tech collects a blood specimen of a patient that has returned from a radiology test that included an IV injection of dye. The tech notes the radiographic test and time on the requisition form. Why did the tech do this?
A
In order to inform the lab of possible adulterants.
B
In order to inform the lab of a procedure that may affect the blood test.
C
In order to inform the lab of other departments involved in the patients' care.
D
In order to inform the lab of possible time delays.
Question 20 Explanation: 
The tech noted on the form the name and time of the radiographic procedure because the IV dye may interfere with the blood test.
Question 21
Please mark the appropriate time for labeling a patient's specimen:
A
before the blood is drawn
B
after all blood has been collected for the day
C
immediately after collection
D
none of the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
The appropriate time for labeling a patient specimen is immediately after collection.
Question 22
The phlebotomy tech has entered a patient's room. He has introduced the patient and has identified the patient and explained to him the venipuncture procedure. He told him that the doctor had requested a blood test and that the lab will contact the doctor with the results. He also added that he would draw a small sample from his vein in order to run the test and that the patient may feel a small pinch. Please mark the reason why the tech told this to the patient:
A
To inform the patient of the procedure, which is required for informed consent.
B
The tech explained the procedure in order to get implied consent from the patient.
C
To prepare the patient for the pain they may feel, so as not to surprise them.
D
None of the above
Question 22 Explanation: 
The tech is informing the patient of the procedure, which is required for informed consent.
Question 23
The phlebotomy tech needs to call the nursing station to inform the nursing staff of an elevated lab result of a patient. The tech is tentative to do so because he believes it may be a breach of confidentiality. Is the tech correct?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 23 Explanation: 
The tech is not correct because sharing clinically significant information with members of the healthcare team is not a breach of confidentiality.
Question 24
The phlebotomy tech is in a room with a patient and several of his visitors. He needs to perform another blood draw. The tech introduced themselves and identified the patient and then congratulated the patient saying that the patient's previous blood draw confirmed that the patient is pregnant. Has the tech done anything wrong and if he did, what?
A
The tech has not done anything wrong.
B
The tech has breached the patient’s right to confidentiality.
C
The tech has violated the Patient Bill of Rights.
D
B and C.
Question 24 Explanation: 
The has breached the patient’s right to confidentiality and violated the Patient Bill of Rights.
Question 25
Please mark the description of the "chain of custody":
A
Handcuffs used to control people who are arrested.
B
The process an arrested person follows when in jail.
C
The order of laboratory supervisors alike the chain of command.
D
The process for maintaining control of a specimen, from the actual collection to final disposition, used under special circumstances such as workplace, sports, or law enforcement testing.
Question 25 Explanation: 
Chain of custody is the process for maintaining control of a specimen, from the actual collection to final disposition, used under special circumstances such as workplace, sports, or law enforcement testing.
Question 26
The phlebotomy tech is performing his working tasks in the outpatient lab. A patient came in for a drug screening of urine. The tech put a tamper-proof urine collection cup in the bathroom designated for drug screening. After the tech has received the patient's urine, he had examined its color and noted the temperature. The tech also noted the observations and initiated the chain of custody form. Why did the tech examine the color and temperature of the urine sample?
A
The tech was curious.
B
The tech checked for evidence of tampering.
C
The tech checked for signs of dehydration.
D
The tech wanted to determine if drugs are present.
Question 26 Explanation: 
The tech checked for evidence of tampering.
Question 27
Please mark the name of the amendment which is applied to every clinical laboratory in the US and was passed in 1988 while enacted in 1992 and created to ensure accurate laboratory results:
A
Patient Bill of Rights
B
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment
C
HIPPA
D
None of the above
Question 27 Explanation: 
The name of this amendment is the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment.
Question 28
Please mark one of the following that is NOT considered a requirement for a quality specimen:
A
Right patient, right specimen, right tube, right test, right label.
B
Non-hemolyzed specimen.
C
Non-clotted specimen (when an anticoagulant additive is used).
D
Specimen transported to a lab within two hours of collection.
Question 28 Explanation: 
Specimen transported to a lab within two hours of collection. is not considered a requirement for a quality specimen.
Question 29
The phlebotomy tech is in a patient's room where they have introduced themselves and identified the patient. The tech is relaxed and sits with their arms at their sides while explaining the procedure. The tech keeps eye contact, doesn't interrupt nor paraphrases the patient's questions when asked. Please mark the form of communication used by the tech:
A
Negative body language
B
Active listening
C
Non-verbal communication
D
B and C
Question 29 Explanation: 
The tech uses non-verbal communication and friendly professionalism.
Question 30
What is the purpose of an incident report?  
A
For the tech to get their story in before the patient does.
B
For the tech to report an incident.
C
For the tech to tell on a co-worker anonymously.
D
For the tech to admit wrongdoing in writing.
Question 30 Explanation: 
The incident report is for the tech to report an incident if any.
Question 31
Which department has a clinical chemistry lab?
A
Anatomical pathology
B
Clinical pathology
Question 31 Explanation: 
The clinical chemistry lab is in the department of clinical pathology.
Question 32
Please mark the name which describes blood that flows towards the body tissues, and contains oxygenated blood cells:
A
Venous blood.
B
Arterial blood.
C
Capillary blood.
Question 32 Explanation: 
Arterial blood is the blood that flows towards the body tissues and contains oxygenated blood cells.
Question 33
Please mark the term which describes the process by which the human body attempts to maintain internal stability in response to stimuli disturbing its normal condition:
A
Homeostasis.
B
Hemolysis.
C
Hemostasis.
Question 33 Explanation: 
Homeostasis is the process in which the human body attempts to maintain internal stability in response to stimuli disturbing its normal condition.
Question 34
What is the meaning of the word part blephar/o ?
A
Ear
B
Eyelid
C
Tongue
D
None of the above.
Question 34 Explanation: 
The word part blephar/o means eyelid.
Question 35
What is the meaning of the word buccal?
A
Pertaining to the chin
B
Pertaining to the cheek
C
Abnormal skin coloring
D
None of the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
The meaning of the word buccal is "pertaining to the cheek.”
Question 36
What is the meaning of the word phlebitis?
A
Inflammation of the arteries
B
Inflammation of the veins
C
Inflammation of the arterioles
D
None of the above
Question 36 Explanation: 
Phlebitis is an inflammation of the veins.
Question 37
Which of the following medical word roots which contain -rrh means "t burst forth"?
A
-rrhagia
B
-rrhexia
C
-rrhea
D
None of the above
Question 37 Explanation: 
The word part "-rrhagia" means “to burst forth.”
Question 38
Please mark one of the following suffixes that means "pertaining to”:
A
-al
B
-ic
C
-ia
D
All of the above.
Question 38 Explanation: 
The suffixes-al,-ic, and -ia mean “pertaining to.”
Question 39
What is the meaning of the word-part "hemat/o"?
A
Blood
B
Liver
C
Tissue
D
None of the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
The word part "hemat/o" means blood.
Question 40
Please mark the laboratory professional has extensive training in both clinical and anatomical laboratory interpretations, has a medical degree, and is often classified as the laboratory director:
A
Lab Assistant
B
Phlebotomist
C
Medical Assistant
D
Pathologist
Question 40 Explanation: 
The pathologist is the laboratory professional has extensive training in both clinical and anatomical laboratory interpretations and has a medical degree.
Question 41
What are transmission-based precautions?
A
Guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection from any source of body fluid, except sweat, in healthcare settings.
B
Guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by blood and body fluids in healthcare settings.
C
Guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by a known source of infection.
Question 41 Explanation: 
Transmission-based precautions are guidelines designed to prevent transmission of infection by a known source of infection.
Question 42
Is a splash-proof face shield necessary to enter a contact isolation room?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 42 Explanation: 
A splash-proof face shield is necessary to enter a contact isolation room.
Question 43
Please mark the description of the mode of transmission:
A
A route of pathogenic transmission, from one host to another.
B
A method of transmitting information.
C
The categories of isolation.
Question 43 Explanation: 
The mode of transmission is the route a pathogen requires for transmission from one host to another.
Question 44
Please mark the  the OSHA standard which complies with a properly labeled chemical container:
A
Hazard communication standard
B
Standard precautions
C
Process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals
D
None of the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
The Hazard Communication Standard complies with properly labeled chemical containers.
Question 45
Please mark whether the following is a federal requirement of healthcare employers: “All equipment that contains needles must have a system to single-handedly permanently resheath the needle.”
A
Yes.
B
No.
Question 45 Explanation: 
"All equipment that contains needles must have a system to single-handedly permanently resheath the needle.” is a federal requirement of healthcare employers.
Question 46
Four small color-coded diamonds are grouped into a larger diamond in the hazard identification system. The numbers stand for the severity of the hazard. Please mark the plausible indication of the yellow diamond with the number 4:
A
Yellow indicates a reactivity/stability hazard. The number 4 indicates no hazard.
B
Yellow indicates a reactivity/stability hazard. The number 4 indicates an extreme hazard.
C
Yellow indicates a special hazard. The number 4 indicates a moderate hazard.
D
Yellow indicates a flammability hazard. The number 4 indicates a mild hazard.
Question 46 Explanation: 
The yellow diamond with the number 4 indicates reactivity/ extreme stability hazard.
Question 47
Please mark the plausible indication of a hazard identification label with a red diamond and the number 1:
A
A mild flammability hazard.
B
A moderate flammability hazard.
C
A mild blood borne hazard.
D
A moderate blood borne hazard.
Question 47 Explanation: 
A red diamond with a number 1 indicates a mild flammability hazard.
Question 48
What is hepatitis?
A
An infectious agent in the liver.
B
A liver disease that can lead to cirrhosis or cancer.
C
Classified into several sero-types.
D
All of the above
Question 48 Explanation: 
Hepatitis is a liver infection that is caused by a virus. This virus can be one of several different serotypes and can lead to cirrhosis or cancer of the liver in susceptible patients.
Question 49
Please mark one of the following statements that is true regarding HIV:
A
A health care worker should not shake hands with a patient with HIV.
B
HIV is easier to contract than Hepatitis.
C
HIV is a disease state caused by the virus AIDS.
D
HIV is a blood-borne pathogen that can be spread through blood and body fluids
Question 49 Explanation: 
HIV is a blood-borne pathogen that can be spread through blood and body fluids.
Question 50
Why are asepsis procedures are necessary?
A
Patient care areas are sterile.
B
Every patient carries disease.
C
They lower the risk of spreading infection.
D
None of the above.
Question 50 Explanation: 
Asepsis procedures are necessary because they lower the risk of spreading infection.
Question 51
What are needle-stick protection devices?
A
Engineering controls for safety.
B
Caps for needles that reduce the risk for needle-sticks.
C
Required by law.
D
All of the above.
Question 51 Explanation: 
Needle-stick protection devices are caps for needles that reduce the risk for needle-sticks, engineer controls for safety and they are Required by law.
Question 52
Please mark the term that describes the process through which the human body attempts to maintain internal stability in response to stimuli disturbing its normal condition:
A
Hemostasis.
B
Hemolysis.
C
Homeostasis.
Question 52 Explanation: 
Homeostasis is the process through which the human body attempts to maintain internal stability in response to stimuli disturbing its normal condition.
Question 53
The phlebotomy tech is about to perform venipuncture so they are selecting a vein. He assured himself that he found the right vein after applying a tourniquet, and palpating the vein. The selected vein feels big and it is cord-like. Is this vein the right choice?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 53 Explanation: 
Veins that feel cord-like are thrombosed.
Question 54
Please mark the test in which alcohol wipes shouldn't be used when drawing samples:
A
ETOH level
B
Complete blood count
C
Blood cultures
D
A and C
Question 54 Explanation: 
The test in which alcohol wipes shouldn't be used when drawing samples are the ETOH level and blood cultures.
Question 55
Please mark one of the following which describes the "proper order of draws":
A
Red top, yellow top, light blue top, additive tubes.
B
Light blue top, red top, additive tubes.
C
None of the answers is right.
D
Yellow top, light blue top, red top, additive tubes.
Question 55 Explanation: 
Yellow top, light blue top, red top, additive tubes is the proper order of draws.
Question 56
The phlebotomy tech is collecting blood from a finger-stick. They are worried that have insufficient blood drops and that they might have to re-stick the patient. The tech squeezes and milks the fingertip by squeezing a few more drops of blood. What (if anything) did the new phlebotomy tech do wrong, and why?
A
The tech did not do anything wrong.
B
The tech should not milk the site as milking hurts the patient more than a re-stick.
C
The tech should not squeeze and milk the site because fluid from the fingertip tissue may be squeezed into the blood drops.
D
The tech contaminated the site and sample by squeezing and milking.
Question 56 Explanation: 
The tech should not squeeze and milk the site because fluid from the fingertip tissue may be squeezed into the blood drops.
Question 57
What is the purpose of ARD and what does it stand for?
A
"Antibiotic recovery device," used when testing for appropriate antibiotic therapy.
B
"Account receivable department," used for billing purposes.
C
"Antibiotic removal device," used when blood cultures are drawn after the patient has received antibiotics
D
None of the above
Question 57 Explanation: 
ARD stands for "Antibiotic removal device," used when blood cultures are drawn after the patient has received antibiotics.
Question 58
A phlebotomy tech drew for multiple tests: a CBC, PT & PTT, blood glucose level and thyroid panel. He recalled from the class that collection tubes are drawn in order. The tech arranged the collection tubes in this order: lavender top, light blue top, gray top, and SST/ tiger top. What did the tech do wrong?
A
The tech used too many tubes.
B
The tech didn't follow the order of draws. The correct order is light blue top, SST/tiger top, lavender top, and gray top.
C
The tech has not done anything wrong.
D
The tech didn't follow the order of draws. The correct order is SST/tiger top, light blue top, lavender top, and gray top.
Question 58 Explanation: 
The tech didn't follow the order of draws. Correct order is: light blue top, SST/tiger top, lavender top, and gray top.
Question 59
Please mark whether a SST or PST is first in the order of laws:
A
It is the same tube but a different name.
B
PST is first.
C
SST is first.
D
The order of draw does not apply.
Question 59 Explanation: 
The SST is first in the order of draws.
Question 60
Please mark the color of the top of a tube that indicates additive EDTA in the content:
A
Light blue
B
Dark blue
C
Lavender
D
Gray
Question 60 Explanation: 
Lavender or purple-topped collection tubes indicate the additive EDTA in the content.
Question 61
The phlebotomy tech entered the patient and greeted him by saying "Hi, I am the phlebotomy tech and I will draw a little blood. Are you Mr.Jack? What, if anything, has the tech done wrong?
A
The tech should allow the patient to say his name first.
B
The tech did not do anything wrong.
C
The tech shouldn't speak so casually to the patient.
Question 61 Explanation: 
The tech should allow the patient to say his name in order to verify the identity of his patient.
Question 62
Does the usage of micro-containers implies following an order of draws:
A
What is a micro-container?
B
No
C
Yes
Question 62 Explanation: 
When using micro-containers, drawing samples should be in the following order so that additive cross-contamination will be prevented: hematology, chemistry studies, and blood bank.
Question 63
The phlebotomy tech is performing a heel puncture and is inspecting an infant's heel for an appropriate puncture site. The tech holds the infant's heel and imagines a V-shaped boundary line, with the point at the back of the heel. The tech chooses his puncture site on the left side of the heel, on the outside of the V-shaped boundary line. What, if anything, has the tech done wrong?
A
The tech should have chosen a site inside the V-shaped boundary.
B
The tech should have inverted the V-shaped boundary line.
C
The tech should have used a circle-shaped boundary line.
D
The tech didn't do anything wrong.
Question 63 Explanation: 
The tech didn't do anything wrong because choosing a puncture site outside of the V-shaped boundary keeps the puncture site options contained to a safer area.
Question 64
Please mark the difference between serum and plasma:
A
No difference
B
Serum contains proteins and no clotting factors while plasma contains serum and clotting factors.
C
Serum contains clotting factors while plasma contains serum and proteins.
D
Serum and plasma contain clotting factors. The serum also contains proteins while the plasma also contains lymph fluid.
Question 64 Explanation: 
The difference is that the serum contains proteins and no clotting factors while plasma contains serum and clotting factors.
Question 65
Glycolysis is:
A
he additive used to preserve glucose in blood.
B
The destruction of red blood cells.
C
The process of breaking down glucose for energy.
Question 65 Explanation: 
Glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose for energy.
Question 66
The phlebotomy tech has a stat drew and enters a patient's room where the patient and the doctor are discussing. The tech immediately leaves the room, respecting the patients’ right to privacy. He plans to return after completing a routine draw from the patient across the hall. What, if anything, did the tech do wrong?
A
The tech did not do anything wrong.
B
Because it was a stat draw, the tech should interrupt the discussion by informing the physician an important stat draw is due, and draw the sample.
C
The tech should introduce himself, explain to the patient and physician why he is in the room, and follow-up by asking if he may draw the specimen.
D
The tech should stand quietly in the room until the discussion is over and then draw the specimen.
Question 66 Explanation: 
After introducing himself, the tech should explain to the physician and patient why are they in the room and ask permission to begin the procedure.
Question 67
The phlebotomy tech is preparing to perform an arterial puncture. Please mark the area of the patient’s body that should be examined first for a suitable site?
A
The antecubital area of both arms.
B
The thumb side of the wrist.
C
The brachial artery.
D
The femoral artery.
Question 67 Explanation: 
The thumb side of the wrist should be examined first.
Question 68
The phlebotomy tech is observing another tech's technique while they perform an arterial puncture. One of the most striking differences the tech observes is the angle of the needle their colleague is using. The colleague-tech has inserted the needle at a 45-degree angle. Is the colleague-tech demonstrating proper technique?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 68 Explanation: 
The tech is demonstrating the proper angle for an arterial puncture.
Question 69
The phlebotomy tech has finished one specimen collection and has thought about the stat draw he was just notified of, as well as the timed draw already scheduled on his run. After the collection tube was filled to the correct level, the tech quickly removed the needle, covered the puncture site with gauze, labeled the specimen, and left the patient's room. What, if anything, has the tech done wrong?
A
The tech hasn't done anything wrong.
B
The tech did not remove the tourniquet.
C
The tech did not check the site for bleeding before leaving the room.
D
B and C
Question 69 Explanation: 
The tech did not remove the tourniquet before removing the needle. They also didn't check the site for bleeding before leaving the patient’s room.
Question 70
The phlebotomy tech has selected a needle for a butterfly syringe, intended for drawing a blood specimen from a pediatric patient. The patient’s veins are small, so the tech wants a small sized needle, so he chooses a 23-gauge needle. Has the tech made the correct selection?
A
Yes
B
No
Question 70 Explanation: 
A 23-gauge needle is a small-bore needle.
Question 71
The phlebotomy tech has been notified that yet another of his finger sticks has been rejected by the lab. The lab tech tells him, “Quit milking so much!” The tech is not sure what that means. Can you tell the tech what is causing rejection of his capillary collections from finger puncture?
A
You are squeezing too hard and pulling the fingers toward the fingertip. It causes hemolysis and tissue fluid to be squeezed into the blood.
B
You are scooping the blood with the capillary collection device, instead of letting it fill on its own. It’s causing hemolysis.
C
Don’t pester the lab techs so much; lay low and they will quit picking on your specimens.
Question 71 Explanation: 
"Milking" is the word for squeezing and pulling action used with a finger puncture.
Question 72
Please mark the POCT device that is the only test which not wiping the first drop of blood away, before collecting the capillary specimen?
A
Blood glucose monitor.
B
Blood gas analyzer.
C
Blood coagulation monitor.
D
Hemoglobin system.
Question 72 Explanation: 
Blood coagulation monitor devices usually instruct to not wipe away the first drop of blood after a puncture for capillary blood.
Question 73
Please mark the one that is not a method of blood collection:
A
Syringe draw.
B
Intravenous infusion.
C
Vacutainer draws.
D
Butterfly syringe draw
Question 73 Explanation: 
An intravenous infusion is not a method of blood collection.
Question 74
For which group of patients a 22-gauge needle would be appropriately used?
A
Infants
B
Children
C
Senior adults
D
B and C
Question 74 Explanation: 
A 22-gauge needle is usually used in both children and senior adults.
Question 75
An automatic incision device is used for:
A
surgical purposes
B
bleeding time punctures
C
arterial punctures
D
difficult venous punctures
Question 75 Explanation: 
An automatic incision device is used to make two incisions on the lower arm.
Question 76
The disadvantage of using the radial artery for arterial puncture:
A
There is not a disadvantage.
B
that it lies close to the medial nerve.
C
that is small.
D
that is not easily palpable.
Question 76 Explanation: 
The disadvantage of using the radial artery for arterial puncture is that it is smaller than other arteries.
Question 77
What is the match if a test is a uric acid:
A
SST/Chemistry lab.
B
Lavender/ Chemistry lab.
C
Green/Serology.
Question 77 Explanation: 
A blood sample drawn for a uric acid would be drawn in a SST and sent to the chemistry lab.
Question 78
What is the match if the test is A1C?
A
Green/chemistry lab.
B
Lavender/chemistry lab.
C
Red/hematology lab.
Question 78 Explanation: 
A blood sample drawn for an A1C (hemoglobin A1C) is drawn in a lavender top tube and sent to the chemistry lab.
Question 79
Please mark the phrases that describes the pre-analytical phase of laboratory testing:
A
The phase of laboratory testing that involves phlebotomists.
B
One of two phases necessary for laboratory testing,
C
The phase involving all processes of laboratory testing.
D
All of the above
Question 79 Explanation: 
The pre-analytical phase of laboratory testing is the first of the two phases that are involved in all processes of laboratory testing.
Question 80
Please mark the pre-analytical variable:
A
The patient did not maintain the designated fasting period for a fasting sample.
B
Light sensitive sample not protected from light.
C
An elevated result not reported immediately
D
A and B
Question 80 Explanation: 
Two examples of pre-analytical variables is a patient eating during the fasting period and not protecting a light-sensitive specimen from light
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 80 questions to complete.

Leave a Comment

Share Comment
0