Medical Coding Practice Exam: Get Ready for Your Medical Coding Test!

Medical Coding Practice Exam

This exam consists of medical coding questions which cover all the necessary information for medical coders and medical billing specialists.

The topics included in this exam are: coding by body system, coding by a procedure (CPT®) and department, ICD-9-CM, HCPCS Level II, Anatomy and Vocabulary, Practice and Evaluation and General Coding Guidelines.

Good luck!

Medical Coding Practice Exam

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Question 1
Please mark the appropriate code that ought to be given by a pathologist who performed an analysis of 2 distinctive biopsies from the vaginal wall and 1 from the cervix.
A
88305 (X3)
B
88305, 88307
C
88305 (X4)
D
88305 (X3), 88307
Question 1 Explanation: 
The pathologist should code with 88305, with 4 units which refer to the four distinctive biopsies.
Question 2
Please mark the correct code for the dialysis care of a 2-year-old patient who has been suffering an end-stage renal disease and was receiving dialysis twice a week while expecting for a kidney transplant. During the last month of life, he was administered with dialysis once a day between June 1st and June 14th.
A
90968 (X14)
B
90960
C
90967 (X14)
D
90964
Question 2 Explanation: 
The correct code for the patient's dialysis care is 90967 (X14) (ESRD-related Services for Dialysis Less than an Full Month of Service, Per Day; for Patients Younger than 2 Years of Ages)
Question 3
Please mark the appropriate modifier for a case of a 32-year-old woman with repeat urinary tract infections whose urine samples have been sent to a lab by the physician who suspected another UTI, in order to a identify the bacteria. The physician's office billed for the lab service, although the sample was sent to an outside lab.
A
No modifier would be necessary
B
Modifier -99
C
Modifier -52
D
Modifier -90
Question 3 Explanation: 
Modifier-90 is the correct modifier in this case. Modifier -90 is an Outside Laboratory modifier and it is used when the physician's office bills for the laboratory service, even though they sent the lab sample to an outside laboratory.
Question 4
Please mark the correct code for the service regarding a physician who took an impression of a 47-year-old woman's left orbital socket and created a custom prosthesis:
A
21076
B
21089 -LT
C
21088 -LT
D
21077 -LT
Question 4 Explanation: 
The correct code for this service is 21077 (Impression and Custom Preparation; Orbital Prosthesis).
Question 5
Please mark the correct code by a pathologist who performed a gross post-mortem examination on a stillborn infant. The exam included the infant's brain but did not include the infant's spinal cord.
A
88005
B
88012
C
88025
D
88014
Question 5 Explanation: 
The code that ought to be used is 88014 (Necropsy, Gross Examination Only; Stillborn or Newborn with Brain).
Question 6
Please mark the correct way to report the telephone services for a phone call in the following case: A toddler with cystic fibrosis was evaluated through a test whose outcome was suspicious enough to make the physician order additional tests. He ordered his nurse to call the patient's parents and talk about the results. The conversation lasted for 20 minutes and the nurse scheduled an appointment for the next day at 10:00 AM.
A
No telephone consultation service code should be reported.
B
98967
C
98968
D
99442
Question 6 Explanation: 
No telephone consultation service code should be reported because the call resulted in an appointment the next day. The code 98967 (Telephone Assessment and Management Services Provided by a Qualified Non-Physician HealthCare Professional to an Established Patient, Parent, or Guardian not Originating from a Related Assessment and Management Service Provided within the Previous 7 Days nor Leading to an Assessment and Management Service or Procedure within the Next 24 Hours or Soonest Available Appointment).
Question 7
Please mark the correct ICD-9 code for a diagnosis of personal history of heart attacks:
A
V15.9
B
412
C
V12.50
D
V17.3
Question 7 Explanation: 
The correct ICD-9 is 412 (Old Myocardial Infarction).
Question 8
Please mark the correct code for a lymphangiography with  insertion of radioactive tracer for identification of sentinel node:
A
38790 -50, 75803
B
38790, 75801
C
38792 -50, 75803
D
38792, 75801
Question 8 Explanation: 
The correct code and primary procedure is 38792 (Injection Procedure; Radioactive Tracer for Identification of Sentinel Node).
Question 9
A patient with Type II diabetes and her physician have been trying to develop a strategy of exercise and nutrition that would ease her symptoms. Her doctor gave her a new medication that ought to control her blood sugar levels. What is the correct ICD-9 for her diabetes?
A
250.0
B
250.00
C
250.02
D
250.80
Question 9 Explanation: 
The correct ICD-9 code for the patient's diabetes is 250.00. All diabetes codes require a fifth digit to be as specific as possible.
Question 10
Please mark the correct code for the following procedure: An early adolescent with severe acne has undergone drainage of many complicated acne pustules and comedones. Her dermatologist sutured the left and the right side and then incised, drained and marsupialized the cyst and left it open for drainage.
A
10060
B
10061, 10040
C
10040
D
10061
Question 10 Explanation: 
The correct code is 10040 (Acne Surgery). It includes the opening of acne comedones, cysts, and pustules and marsupialization of the acne cysts.
Question 11
A young boy was running through his friend's house, broke a glass door and therefore suffered severe lacerations on his trunk and arms and minor lacerations on his face and legs. At the emergency, the physician closed one 2 cm laceration on the boy's cheek and two 2.3 cm lacerations on the boy's left arm. Then, he closed one 4 cm laceration on the right arm and two lacerations on the left arm which were 1.5 and 3 cm. The physician also treated a 5 cm laceration on the boy's chest, which required the removal of particulate glass and a single layer closure.  Please mark the correct codes for wound repair in this case:
A
12001, 12002 (X2), 12032 (X2)
B
12005, 12011-51, 12032-51
C
12004, 12011-51, 12032 (X2)
D
12004, 12011-51, 12034-51
Question 11 Explanation: 
The correct codes for the wound repair are 12004, for the repair of the 4.6 cm and 4 cm lacerations of the left leg and right arm; 12011 for the repair of the 2 cm laceration of the cheek; 12034 for the repair of the 4.5cm and 5cm lacerations of the left arm and chest.
Question 12
What are the 4 organs in the lymphatic system?
A
Spleen, tonsils, bone marrow, and thymus
B
Spleen, Peyer's patches, and tonsils
C
Spleen, tonsils, Peyer's patches, and thymus
D
Tonsils, Peyer's patches, thymus, and bone marrow
Question 12 Explanation: 
The spleen, tonsils, Peyer's patches, and thymus gland.
Question 13
Please mark the difference between  biopsy codes located in the musculoskeletal section and those in the integumentary section:
A
The musculoskeletal section has no biopsy codes.
B
The biopsy codes found in the integumentary section include codes for biopsies of subcutaneous structures including bone while the codes in the musculoskeletal system have biopsies for bone only.
C
The biopsy codes found in the integumentary section are only for codes related to malignant neoplasms.
D
The biopsy codes found in the musculoskeletal section are for deeper structures while the biopsy codes found in the integumentary section are for biopsies of the skin and subcutaneous structures.
Question 13 Explanation: 
The difference is that the biopsy codes found in the musculoskeletal section are for deeper structures whereas the biopsy codes found in the integumentary section are for biopsies of the skin and subcutaneous structures.
Question 14
A patient has undergone excision of two 1.5 cm malignant lesions on his upper back. The physician who performed the operation noticed four additional lesions of 0.3, 0.7, 1.0, and 1.45 cm which seemed pre-malignant. The lesions were sent to a pathology lab where they were marked as benign. Please mark the adequate codes for the service:
A
11400 (X4), 11602 (X2)
B
11400, 11401 (X2), 11402
C
11404, 11603
D
11400, 11401 (X2), 11402, 11602 (X2)
Question 14 Explanation: 
The correct codes are: 1400, for the excision of the 0.3 cm benign lesion, 11401 (X2) for the excision of both 0.7 and 1.0 benign lesions; 11402 for the excision of the 1.45 cm benign lesion; 11602 (X2) for the excision of both of the 1.5 cm malignant lesions.
Question 15
Please mark the adequate ICD-9 diagnosis code for a patient that was diagnosed with acute bronchitis and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease and was seen in the office:
A
466.0
B
491.22
C
466.0, 491.22
D
491.21
Question 15 Explanation: 
The correct ICD-9 code is 491.22 (Obstructive Chronic Bronchitis with Acute Bronchitis).
Question 16
A child patient has suffered a severe asthma attack. The pediatrician performed pulse oximetry to check the patient's blood oxygen saturation level and spirometry to check the patient's lung capacity. Then, he ordered an albuterol nebulizer treatment and a post-spirometry to check the patient's reactions to the albuterol treatment. Please mark the adequate codes for this office visit:
A
99214, 94060, 94760, 94640, A7015, A4616, J7630
B
99214, 94010 (X2), 94760, 94640, A7015, A4616, J7630
C
99214, 94060, 94640, A7015, A4616, J7630
D
99214, 94010, 94760, 94640, A7015, A4616, J7630
Question 16 Explanation: 
The adequate codes are: 9214 (E&M service), 94060 (Bronchodilation Responsiveness, Spirometry), 94010 (Pre and Post Bronchodilator Administration), 94760 (Pulse Oximetry Reading) and 94640 (Nebulizer Treatment). Codes A7015, A4616, and J7630 are nebulizer treatment supply codes.
Question 17
The physician removed the cast from the right lower leg of a patient. The physician examined the leg and concluded that there was no need for a further follow-up or casting. Please mark the adequate code for this service:
A
25250
B
99214
C
No code would be reported
D
29799
Question 17 Explanation: 
This service doesn't require reporting of codes.
Question 18
The respiratory system subsection in the CPT manual is NOT limited to procedure codes for which of the following body areas?
A
Nose, mouth, and throat
B
Nose, accessory sinuses, and trachea/bronchi
C
Accessory sinuses, mouth, and stomach
D
Lungs, pleura, and heart
Question 18 Explanation: 
Though the respiratory system subsection in the CPT manual contains the nose, accessory sinuses, and trachea/bronchi, it is not limited to procedure codes.
Question 19
Several bone marrow donors were tested and a potential candidate for a patient with leukemia was found. Through the technique known as "aspiration", the physician collected a small sample of the potential candidate's bone marrow and sent it to pathology to determine if it is a match for the patient. Please mark the adequate code for this procedure performed by the physician:
A
38221
B
38220
C
38230
D
38232
Question 19 Explanation: 
The correct code for the procedure performed by the physician is 38220 (Bone Marrow; Aspiration Only).
Question 20
Why was HIPAA created?
A
To protect patients' privacy.
B
To find ways for uncovering abuse or fraud.
C
To create standards of electronic transactions.
D
All of the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
HIPAA was created to protect patient privacy, find ways to uncover fraud and abuse and to create standards of electronic transactions.
Question 21
A patient has been sent to the radiologist for a set of spinal x-rays after suffering from spinal curvature problems of the lower back. The radiologist took x-rays from 4 distinct angles of the patient's spine: standing straight, bending forward and from each side. The films were sent to the patient's PCP for interpretation and report. Please mark the code that ought to be reported by the radiologist:
A
72114 -TC
B
72110 -TC, 72120 -TC
C
72114
D
72110, 72120
Question 21 Explanation: 
The code that should be reported is 72114 (Radiologic Examination, Spine, Lumbosacral; Complete, including Bending Views, Minimum of 6 Views) with modifier -TC.
Question 22
A 2-day-old premature infant, weighing 2.5 kg, with possible meningitis, underwent a lumbar puncture. Please mark the adequate code for this service:
A
62272
B
62270
C
62270 -63
D
62272 -63
Question 22 Explanation: 
The correct code for this service is with 62270 (Spinal Puncture, Lumbar, Diagnostic) with modifier -63 (meaning that the patient weighs less than 4 kg).
Question 23
A 46-year-old male patient has had implantation of prosthetic mesh for support and underwent a thoracoabdominal diaphragmatic hernia. Please mark the adequate code for this procedure:
A
39531
B
39530
C
43336
D
43337
Question 23 Explanation: 
The correct code for this procedure is 43337 (Repair, Paraesophageal Hiatal Hernia, via Thoracoabdominal Incision, Except Neonatal with Implantation of Mesh or Other Prosthesis).
Question 24
The emergency department has received a patient with a serious work injury in the need for a severe laceration to the right forearm. The physician examined and assessed him, then sutured the complicated wound using 25-0 vicryl sutures in three subcutaneous layers and had prescribed him prophylactic antibiotics before he released him. The patient was ordered to return in one week for a PCP and a follow-up check. Please mark the correct level of E&M service:
A
99284
B
99282
C
99283
D
99291
Question 24 Explanation: 
The correct level of E&M service is 99283 (Emergency Department Visit, Level Three).
Question 25
A 47-year-old male patient suffering from severe cancer of the lower left mandible was presented for surgical removal of the lower left jawbone with a secondary insertion of the mandibular prosthesis. Prior the surgery, the patient had to be intubated through a tracheostomy. Please mark the adequate code for the intubation:
A
31605
B
31600
C
No code would be used for the intubation
D
31603
Question 25 Explanation: 
No code should be used for the intubation.
Question 26
Please mark the FIRST thing that ought to be determined by a coder when selecting the code of evaluation and management:
A
The time spent with the patient by the provider.
B
The appropriate category of E&M service.
C
If the patient was new or established.
D
The time duration of the discharge.
Question 26 Explanation: 
The appropriate category of E&M service is the first thing that needs to be determined when selecting an evaluation and management code.
Question 27
A patient with severe head trauma and intracerebral hematoma underwent a craniotomy. The procedure was difficult and required extra time and effort. Please mark the adequate code for this procedure:
A
61315
B
61313
C
61313 -22
D
61315 -23
Question 27 Explanation: 
The correct code for the procedure is 61313 (Craniectomy or Craniotomy for Evacuation of Hematoma, Supratentorial; Intracerebral) with modifier -22 (meaning that the procedure was an increased procedural service).
Question 28
Which of the following is the basic distinction between diaphragmatic hernia repair codes?
A
The patient's age and the possible use of mesh.
B
The patient's age and whether the hernia is acute or chronic.
C
The stage and the site of the hernia.
D
The patient's age and the site of the hernia.
Question 28 Explanation: 
The patient's age and whether the hernia is acute or chronic divide the diaphragmatic hernia repair codes.
Question 29
Please mark the adequate term for a radiographic image of the colon's interior:
A
Colonography
B
Colonoscopy
C
Duodenoscopy
D
Cholangiography
Question 29 Explanation: 
Colonography is a radiographic image of the colon's interior.
Question 30
Please mark the difference between meningitis and encephalitis:
A
Encephalitis is the inflammation of the lining of the brain while meningitis is the inflammation of the spinal cord.
B
Encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain while meningitis is the inflammation of the lining of the brain.
C
Encephalitis is the swelling of the spinal cord while meningitis is the inflammation of the lining of the brain.
D
Meningitis is a respiratory infection and encephalitis is the inflammation of the nervous system.
Question 30 Explanation: 
The difference is that encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain while meningitis is the inflammation of the lining of the brain.
Question 31
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Cyst of Mediastinal Wall POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Tumor of Mediastinal WallA physician removed 1.5 cm mass from a mediastinal wall with appropriate margins. Then, he sent the tumor to pathology to determine the malignancy. Please mark the correct code for this procedure:
A
39200
B
39220
C
39000
D
39010
Question 31 Explanation: 
The correct code is 39220 (Resection of Mediastinal Tumor).
Question 32
Please mark the difference between posterior nasal packing procedure codes and anterior nasal packing:
A
There is no difference.
B
Anterior packing is done at the back of the throat while posterior packing is done in the larynx.
C
The CPT manual contains no nasal packing procedure codes.
D
Anterior packing is applied pressure and gauze and posterior packing is the insertion of a balloon into the back of the nasal cavity.
Question 32 Explanation: 
The difference is that anterior packing is applied pressure and gauze and posterior packing is the insertion of a balloon into the back of the nasal cavity.
Question 33
A 65-year-old female patient suffers from atherosclerosis and receives an abdominal aortography through serialography. Her cardiologist analyzes and interprets the findings. Please mark the adequate code for this service:
A
75625
B
75625 -26
C
75605
D
75630
Question 33 Explanation: 
The correct code for this service is 75625 (Aortography, Abdominal, by Serialography, Radiological Supervision, and Interpretation).
Question 34
A 65-year-old female patient suffers from atherosclerosis and receives an abdominal aortography through serialography. Her cardiologist analyzes and interprets the findings. Please mark the adequate code for this service:
A
75625
B
75625 -26
C
75605
D
75630
Question 34 Explanation: 
The correct code for this service is 75625 (Aortography, Abdominal, by Serialography, Radiological Supervision, and Interpretation).
Question 35
Please mark the fixed payer of last resort:
A
Medicare
B
Medicaid
C
Commercial Insurance
D
Worker's Compensation Insurance
Question 35 Explanation: 
The fixed payer of the last resort is Medicaid.
Question 36
Please mark the appropriate action taken by a doctor when they manipulate a dislocated joint back into place:
A
They reduce the subluxation.
B
They manipulate the fracture.
C
They suspend the dislocation.
D
They reduce the suspension.
Question 36 Explanation: 
When a dislocated joint is manipulated back into place, the subluxation is reduced.
Question 37
Which area will be incised if an obstetrician performs an episiotomy during delivery, in order to allow a wide opening for the baby to pass through?
A
Vagina
B
Labia Minora
C
Labia Majora
D
Perineum
Question 37 Explanation: 
The obstetrician incises the perineum in an episiotomy.
Question 38
Please mark the adequate description of a prone position of a patient:
A
Lying flat on his back
B
Lying flat on his stomach
C
Sitting up straight
D
Lying flat on his back with his feet elevated
Question 38 Explanation: 
The prone position of a patient means that the patient is lying flat on his stomach.
Question 39
A 23-year-old patient woman pregnant for the second time has received antepartum care from her doctor in Atlanta, GA. After 9 visits with her doctor from Atlanta, the patient moved to Missoula where she continued the prenatal care with a new doctor who performed the antepartum visits. He also performed vaginal delivery and postpartum care including checkups for  6 weeks after the delivery. Please mark the correct code for the services performed by the doctor from Atlanta:
A
59426
B
59425
C
59410
D
59430
Question 39 Explanation: 
The correct code is 9426 (Antepartum Care Only, 7 or More Visits).
Question 40
A patient with endocarditis has been treated for the past three weeks. The doctor sent a blood sample from the patient to the lab due to the patient's chronic inflammation of the heart's lining. The samples have shown traces of the bacteria Staphylococcus and made the doctor realize that it is the cause of the endocarditis. The doctor ought to prescribe an antibiotic treatment to the patient. Please mark the appropriate diagnosis codes for the respective condition of the patient:
A
421.0, 041.10
B
041.10, 421.0
C
041.11, 421.0
D
421.0, 041.00
Question 40 Explanation: 
The correct codes for this condition are 421.0 (Endocarditis) and 041.10 (Infectious Organism).
Question 41
Mr. Lynch, a 57-year-old male, has been a heavy smoker for the last 15 years of his life. He is treated for a lesion on his upper lip that has been suspected to be malignant. The doctor performed a shave biopsy of the lower lip. Please mark the appropriate code for this procedure:
A
40490
B
40500
C
11100
D
11600
Question 41 Explanation: 
The correct code for this procedure is 40490 (Biopsy of Lip).
Question 42
A 5-year-old pediatric patient has been taken to an annual well-child exam. The mother of the child covers the daughter's health insurance through her work, with a commercial Blue-Cross-Blue-Shield insurance plan. In addition, the mother also has Medicaid coverage due to her low economic status. Please mark the insurance which is billed for the well-child exam:
A
The Blue-Cross Blue-Shield is billed first and Medicaid second.
B
Only the Medicaid is billed.
C
Only the Blue-Cross Blue-Shield is billed.
D
The Medicaid is billed first while the Blue-Cross Blue-Shield is billed second.
Question 42 Explanation: 
The Blue-Cross Blue-Shield is first billed while Medicaid second.
Question 43
PROGRESS NOTE PATIENT: JACKSON, LAURA AGE: 34 DATE: 02/11/2019 A female patient of 35 has a history of multiple ectopic pregnancies which are presented to her OB/GYN's office. Three weeks ago, her at-home pregnancy test was positive and she experienced heavy bleeding in the middle of the previous night. In the morning, the patient reported excessive vaginal bleeding and pain in the abdominal area. The doctor performed a pelvic examination and thus, he suspected ectopic pregnancy and ordered an ultrasound confirmation that later showed an advanced interstitial uterine ectopic pregnancy of 12-week estimated age. The doctor informed the patient about the risks of ectopic pregnancy and a total hysterectomy. The doctor counseled the patient and scheduled for an abdominal hysterectomy in two days.Please mark the code for the procedure performed in the office:
A
99214, 76801
B
99215-57, 81025, 76801
C
99214-57, 81025
D
99215, 81025, 76805
Question 43 Explanation: 
The correct code for the procedure is 99215 and it represents the management services and evaluation.
Question 44
What is the name of the condition that occurs when the lining of the esophagus becomes inflamed?
A
Esophagitis
B
Barrett's Esophagus
C
Esophageal Varices
D
Mallory-Weiss Tear
Question 44 Explanation: 
Esophagitis is the infection or irritation of the esophagus which becomes inflamed.
Question 45
What is a pacemaker or pacing cardioverter-defibrillator that has pacing and sensing functions in three or more heart chambers?
A
Multiple Lead
B
Dual Lead
C
Single Lead
D
Triple Lead
Question 45 Explanation: 
Multiple lead system is a pacemaker or pacing cardioverter-defibrillator that has pacing and sensing functions in three or more chambers of the heart.
Question 46
The tympanic membrane is also known as:
A
A taste bud
B
The eardrum
C
The stirrup
D
The inner ear
Question 46 Explanation: 
The tympanic membrane is referred to as the eardrum.
Question 47
A 15-year-old patient who suffers from the abscessed tooth is suspected to have sepsis. The patient is experiencing a high fever, strong headaches, toothaches, malaise, and fatigue. The doctor suspects that the bacteria from the tooth has spread through the blood and became a systemic infection. He ordered a CBC to examine the level of the infection in the blood. After the doctor writes the orders, the nurse obtains the patient's blood sample through a venipuncture. Please mark the correct code for the collection of the blood:
A
36416
B
36415
C
36410
D
36406
Question 47 Explanation: 
The correct code for the collection of the blood is 36415 (Collection of Venous Blood by Venipuncture).
Question 48
Please mark the anesthesia services that ought to be provided when a doctor needs to harvest a viable left cornea, liver, and heart from a brain-dead patient:
A
01990
B
No anesthesia services should be performed on a brain-dead patient.
C
33930, 47133-51, 65110-51
D
01990-P6
Question 48 Explanation: 
The anesthesia services that ought to be provided is 01990-P6.
Question 49
Please mark the CPT codes that ought to be reported during a cystourethroscopy performed with an ejaculatory duct catheterization and irrigation. In addition, duct radiography is performed to visualize ejaculatory duct system.
A
52000, 52010
B
52000, 52010, 74440
C
52010, 74440
D
52010
Question 49 Explanation: 
The CPT codes that should be reported are 52010 (Cystourethroscopy, with Ejaculatory Duct Catheterization, with or without Irrigation, Instillation, or Duct Radiography, Exclusive of Radiologic Service) and 74440 (Vasography, Vesiculography, or Epidemiography, Radiological Supervision and Interpretation).
Question 50
Please mark the meaning of the suffix "-megaly", as in cardiomegaly:
A
Inflammation of the heart
B
Heart pain
C
Enlargement of the heart
D
Softening of the heart
Question 50 Explanation: 
The suffix "-megaly " refers to enlargement of the heart.
Question 51
When does the time reported for an anesthesia service begins and when does it end? 
A
It begins when an anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic agent and ends when the patient leaves the operating table.
B
It begins when the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient and ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal post-operative attendance.
C
It begins when the physician begins the procedure and ends when the physician ends the procedure.
D
It begins when the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient and ends when the patient leaves the hospital.
Question 51 Explanation: 
The time reported for an anesthesia service begins when the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient and ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal post-operative attendance.
Question 52
Please mark the gland which is composed of two identical lobes and which produces thymosin, stimulates T-cells to produce the hormones that regulate immune system function:
A
Thymus
B
Thyroid
C
Parathyroid
D
Adrenal
Question 52 Explanation: 
The gland which is composed of two identical lobes and which produces thymosin stimulates T-cells to produce the hormones that regulate immune system function is the thymus.
Question 53
Please mark the correct code for the procedure in which a doctor performs a partial Nissen Fundoplasty through a lower thoracic incision:
A
43327
B
43328
C
43325
D
43331
Question 53 Explanation: 
The correct code is 43328 (Esophagogastric Fundoplasty; Thoracotomy).
Question 54
Please mark the correct description regarding spongy bone tissue:
A
It is found along the shafts of hard bones.
B
It is found along the outer layer of bones.
C
It makes up the top edges of long bones.
D
It makes up the insides of bones.
Question 54 Explanation: 
Spongy bone tissue makes up the insides of bones.
Question 55
Please mark the correct anesthesia code for the following case: A teenage patient is presented to an orthopedist after he fall off his bicycle. He suffered severe pain and a closed fracture to the left tibia and fibula and a severe sprain to the left wrist. He received anesthesia and the doctor manipulated the fractures back into place and applied a cast on his left leg.
A
01820, 01490
B
01462
C
01480, 01820
D
01490
Question 55 Explanation: 
The correct code is 01490, (Anesthesia for lower leg cast application, removal, or repair).
Question 56
Please mark what you ought to do when a CPT code has the words “separate procedure” in parenthesis after the code description:
A
If it is listed as a separate procedure, the code shouldn't be used.
B
All other elements should be coded except this element.
C
The coding should be done only if it was the only procedure that was performed.
D
The coding should be done only if the procedure was not performed.
Question 56 Explanation: 
When a CPT code has the words "separate procedure" in parenthesis after the code description, you this procedure should be coded only if it was the only thing performed.
Question 57
Please mark the correct code for the following procedure: A patient who suffers stress incontinence is at the gynecologist'. The gynecologist performed a laparoscopic sling operation using synthetic materials to reinforce the patient's muscles and provide additional urinary control:
A
57288
B
57287
C
51990
D
51992
Question 57 Explanation: 
The correct code is 51992 (Laparoscopy, Surgical; Sling Operation for Stress Incontinence).
Question 58
Please mark the meaning of the symbol # in front of a CPT code:
A
The code is listed out of numerical order.
B
The code is listed in numerical order
C
The code used to be listed with a different number.
D
The code description has changed.
Question 58 Explanation: 
The symbol # in front of a CPT code, means that the code is listed out of numerical order.
Question 59
Please mark the correct code for an endocrinology service located in the medicine section which provides the ambulatory continuous glucose monitoring of interstitial tissue fluid (includes the physician’s reading and interpretation of the report's findings over a 72-hour period):
A
95250
B
95251, 99091
C
95251
D
95250, 99091
Question 59 Explanation: 
The correct code or the endocrinology service located in the medicine section that allows for the ambulatory continuous glucose monitoring of interstitial tissue fluid (includes the physician's reading and interpretation of the report's findings over a 72-hour period) is 95251.
Question 60
PROGRESS NOTE PATIENT: Daryl, Henry DATE: 07/04/2013 MEDICAL NOTE:A patient who suffers from bladder cancer is treated through bladder instillation. The bladder of the patient was emptied as he was catheterized. An anticarcinogenic agent was introduced into the bladder at 0100 hours. The patient was instructed to lie in a supine position for 45 minutes. The physician returned at 0145 hours and emptied the bladder of the anticarcinogenic agent. The patient bore the procedure well and he was instructed to return to the doctor for a follow-up checkup. Please mark the correct code for the instillation:
A
51715
B
51701
C
51702
D
51720
Question 60 Explanation: 
The correct code is 51720 (Bladder Instillation of Anticarcinogenic Agent (Including Retention Time).
Question 61
Please mark the purpose of temporary national codes in the HCPCS Level II manual:
A
They are for temporary procedures.
B
There are only permanent codes and no temporary codes.
C
They allow the establishment of codes prior to the January 1st annual update.
D
They allow the deletion of codes prior to the January 1st annual update.
Question 61 Explanation: 
The purpose of temporary national codes in the HCPCS Level II manual is to allow the establishment of codes prior to the January 1st annual update.
Question 62
What kind of clinical examples are listed from Appendix C in the CPT manual?
A
Examples of surgical procedures.
B
Examples of radiological procedures.
C
Examples of dermatology procedures.
D
Examples of evaluation and management procedures.
Question 62 Explanation: 
In the CPT manual, Appendix C lists clinical examples of evaluation and management procedures.
Question 63
A patient with  Bartholin's gland cyst presents is about to undergo incision and drainage of the cyst. The doctor decides to incise the cyst and suture the lateral sided due to the size of the cyst and its area. He also decides to leave one side open for drainage. Please mark the code that represents the doctor's work:
A
56420
B
56740
C
56440
D
53060
Question 63 Explanation: 
The doctor's work is presented by code 56440.
Question 64
Please mark the way the HCPCS Level II codes are updated every quarter:
A
By CMS
B
By Medicaid
C
By Tricare
D
By commercial payers
Question 64 Explanation: 
The HCPCS Level II codes are updated every quarter by CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services).
Question 65
Please mark the correct code for a dual renal transplant given without nephrectomy to a 23-year-old female patient with ESRD:
A
50360 -50
B
50360
C
50365
D
50365 -50
Question 65 Explanation: 
The correct code is 50360 (Renal Allotransplantation, Implantation of Graft; without Recipient Nephrectomy) and the modifier is -50.
Question 66
Please mark WHY blepharoplasty is performed:
A
To correct the muscle misalignment caused by strabismus.
B
To correct vision loss due to glaucoma.
C
To plastic repair a droopy eyelid.
D
To repair the lens of the eye caused by .
Question 66 Explanation: 
Blepharoplasty is performed to plastic repair a droopy eyelid.
Question 67
What should you do when listing both CPT and HCPCS modifiers on a claim?
A
You should list the HCPCS modifier first.
B
You shouldn't list the HCPCS modifier at all.
C
You should only list the CPT modifier.
D
You should list the CPT modifier first.
Question 67 Explanation: 
You should you list the CPT modifier first when listing both CPT and HCPCS modifiers on a claim.
Question 68
Please mark the correct code for the following visit: A pediatric patient is suffering bilateral ear pain. The pediatrician checked the right external ear canal and noticed large globs of reddish wax which she removed with a removal spoon until the tympanic membrane became visible. The left external ear canal showed no visible buildup of ear wax, but the tympanic membrane was red. The pediatrician diagnosed the patient with left otitis media and prescribed antibiotics. The patient was supposed to be checked up in two weeks time:
A
99213, 69210-50, 382.9, 380.4
B
99214, 382.9
C
99213, 69210-52, 382.9-50
D
99213, 69210, 3820.9, 380.4
Question 68 Explanation: 
The pediatrician should code the visit with 99213 (Evaluation and Management Service) and 69210 (Removal of Impacted Cerumen).
Question 69
Please mark the correct code for parathyroidectomy with parathyroid autotransplantation performed on a 40-year-old male patient:
A
60512
B
60500, 60512
C
60500, 60512 -51
D
60500
Question 69 Explanation: 
The correct codes for a parathyroidectomy with parathyroid autotransplantation on a 40-year-old male patient are: 60500 (Parathyroidectomy or Exploration of Parathyroid(s)) and 60512 (Parathyroid Autotransplantation).
Question 70
Please mark the correct code for the procedure in the following situation: In order to restore the gradual decline of his hearing, and prevent total deafness, a 56-year-old patient decided to undergo bilateral cochlear device implantation. The doctor performed a modified mastoidectomy due to the position of the device and the size of the patient's mastoid bone that was partially occluding the patient's inner ear. This procedure was essential for the implantation of the cochlear device. The doctor used an operating microscope during the cochlear implantation.
A
69930, 69505, 69990
B
69930, 69501, 69900
C
69930
D
69930-50, 69900
Question 70 Explanation: 
The code is 69930-50 (Bilateral Cochlea Device Implantation, With or Without Mastoidectomy).
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