EMT Practice Test: Get Ready for Your EMT Exam!

EMT Practice Test

The EMT Practice test is an exam for Emergency Medical Technicians.

The topics in the EMT exam are the following: Anatomy and Physiology, CPR and Defibrillation,
Cardiac, Respiratory, Trauma, Open and Closed Wounds, Head, Chest, Abdominal, and Facial Trauma, Musculoskeletal Injuries, Spinal Injuries, Ambulance Operations etc.

This exam contains realistic questions regarding these topics and it provides a review of the EMT concepts as well as familiarization with the EMT CAT cognitive exam format.

Good luck!

EMT Practice Test

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Question 1
Which of the following is included by having access to the EMS?
A
Activation by citizens
B
Out-of-hospital care
C
Transition of care
D
All of the above
Question 1 Explanation: 
Access to the EMS includes all of the above.
Question 2
Please mark the 2 types of EMS medical direction from the following:
A
On-radio and off-radio
B
On-line and off-line
C
Prescribed and non-prescribed
D
Standing and non-standing
Question 2 Explanation: 
The 2 types of EMS medical direction are on-line and off-line.
Question 3
What is included in the role of an EMT regarding quality improvement?
A
Neat, legible, and accurate documentation
B
Conducting preventative maintenance
C
Collecting feedback from patients and hospital staff
D
All of the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
The role of the EMT in quality improvement includes all of the above.
Question 4
What is included in the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration Technical Assistance Program Standards for EMS?
A
Integration of health services
B
Continuing education
C
Human resources
D
A and C
Question 4 Explanation: 
The National Highway Safety Administration Technical Assistance Program Standards include human resources as well as an integration of health services but it doesn't include continuing education.
Question 5
Please mark the 5 stages of the grieving process: 
A
Denial, Anguish, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance
B
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Defiance, and Acceptance
C
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance
D
Denial, Anger, Bartering, Depression, and Acceptance
Question 5 Explanation: 
The commonly accepted 5 stages of grieving are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
Question 6
Please mark the example(s) of stressful situations that an EMT may encounter:
A
Flat tire
B
No lunch break
C
Infant or child trauma
D
B and C
Question 6 Explanation: 
An EMT may encounter a stressful situation where infants or children have suffered injuries.
Question 7
One of the EMTs expresses impatience and hostility towards their colleagues and, moreover, complains that suffers from constant insomnia. The EMT is affected by:
A
Stress
B
Domestic abuse
C
Dementia
D
Job satisfaction
Question 7 Explanation: 
Irritable behavior and insomnia are clear signs of stress.
Question 8
If you exercise regularly, eat more carbohydrates, reduce your sugar intake and avoid fast food, you:
A
will be asked to participate in an EMT calendar
B
keep stress under control
C
ensure quick promotion
D
become envious of your colleagues
Question 8 Explanation: 
A proper diet and a regular exercise will help one manage stress.
Question 9
Please mark how soon should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) be held after a major incident:
A
one week
B
10 days
C
24-72 hours
D
A month
Question 9 Explanation: 
A CISD should be held 24-72 hours after a major incident.
Question 10
Please mark the best way for prevention of infectious diseases:
A
Wearing gloves
B
Safe sex
C
Wearing eye protection and an isolation gown
D
Proper hand washing
Question 10 Explanation: 
Proper hand washing before and after assignments is the best prevention against infections and diseases.
Question 11
What should an EMT do when they have to don gloves if they have an allergy to latex? 
A
The EMT should use latex gloves despite their allergy
B
Use vinyl or nitrile gloves
C
The EMT should have to quit their and find a new one
D
The EMT should be restricted to desk duty
Question 11 Explanation: 
Vinyl or nitrile gloves are to be used by people who suffer from a latex allergy.
Question 12
What kind of precaution should you take if you are treating a patient with an airborne disease?
A
All the EMTs included in the treatment should wear HEPA respirators.
B
The patient should be put in isolation.
C
The patient should wear a surgical mask.
D
The EMT should place a HEPA respirator on the patient.
Question 12 Explanation: 
A patient with an airborne disease must wear a mask over their nose and mouth.
Question 13
A patient who has suffered a violent act is at the hospital. When should you enter and check the patient?
A
Immediately and provide care.
B
After law enforcement has taken control of the case.
C
As soon as a family member of the patient allows you to enter.
D
EMTs shouldn't render care to this type of patients.
Question 13 Explanation: 
Each scene must be secured for the patients and the staff.
Question 14
Why should EMTs wait before entering a scene with a patient who has suffered violence and is under the control of law enforcement?
A
The perpetrator may still be on the premises.
B
Bystanders interfere with patient care.
C
Family members interfere with patient care.
D
All of the above.
Question 14 Explanation: 
EMTs shouldn't immediately enter the scene because the perpetrator may still be at the scene, bystanders can interfere with patient care, and family members can also interfere with patient care.
Question 15
Please mark the diseases of concern for pre-hospital personnel:
A
Diabetes, CHF, CAD
B
Syphilis, Meningitis, Herpes simplex
C
PVD, Dementia, Schizophrenia
D
Bipolar, Psychosis, Crohn’s disease
Question 15 Explanation: 
Diseases of concern are those which are highly contagious.
Question 16
Please mark the word that explains a deviation from the accepted standard of care that results in further injury to the patient:
A
Abandonment
B
Assault
C
Battery
D
Negligence
Question 16 Explanation: 
Negligence results in further injury to the patient.
Question 17
Please mark the word that describes the termination of care before completion or without assuring the continuation of care at the same or higher level:
A
Abandonment
B
Assault
C
Battery
D
Negligence
Question 17 Explanation: 
Abandonment is the termination of care before completion or without assuring the continuation of care at the same or higher level.
Question 18
Please mark the type of consent that is assumed from a patient that is unconscious:
A
Informed consent
B
By proxy consent
C
Implied consent
D
Statutory consent
Question 18 Explanation: 
Implied consent is rendering care on an unconscious patient.
Question 19
In order to give consent, a patient must be:
A
Of a legal age and able to make rational decisions.
B
A licensed driver
C
A high school graduate
D
An American citizen
Question 19 Explanation: 
Consent can be given by a patient who is of legal age and able to make rational decisions.
Question 20
If the EMT provides care or touches the patient without consent they are open to be charged with:
A
Negligence
B
Assault
C
Battery
D
B & C
Question 20 Explanation: 
The EMT could be charged with assault and battery if they provide care or touch the patient without consent.
Question 21
What is a point which is distant from the midsagittal or median plane?
A
Medial
B
Proximal
C
Lateral
D
Distal
Question 21 Explanation: 
A point that is distant from the midsagittal or median plane is known as a lateral point.
Question 22
Please mark the description of shock position:
A
Body supine with legs below the level of the heart
B
Body supine with legs level with the ground
C
Body supine with legs elevated 8-12 inches
D
Body prone with legs elevated 8-12 inches
Question 22 Explanation: 
If a patient is going into shock, their body supine should be with legs elevated 8-12 inches.
Question 23
Please mark the term which describes the imaginary line that is drawn vertically from the middle of the armpits to the ankles:
A
Midline
B
Midclavicular line
C
Midaxillary line
D
Anatomical position
Question 23 Explanation: 
The Midaxillary line is the imaginary line that is drawn vertically from the middle of the armpits to the ankles.
Question 24
Please mark the number of ribs that humans have:
A
14
B
10
C
16
D
12
Question 24 Explanation: 
There are 12 pairs of ribs in the human body.
Question 25
What do the iliac crest, the pubis, and the ischium make up?
A
Sternum
B
Jaw
C
Pelvis
D
Ankle
Question 25 Explanation: 
The iliac crest, the pubis, and the ischium make up the pelvis.
Question 26
Please mark the bone that is made up from the manubrium and xiphoid process:
A
Sternum
B
Jaw
C
Pelvis
D
Ankle
Question 26 Explanation: 
The manubrium and xiphoid process make up the sternum.
Question 27
Which of the following is made up by the tibia and fibula?
A
The forearm
B
The elbow
C
The ankle
D
The lower leg
Question 27 Explanation: 
The lower leg is made up by the tibia and fibula.
Question 28
Please mark the normal breathing rate of an adult:
A
8-10 per minute
B
12-20 per minute
C
21-25 per minute
D
5-8 per minute
Question 28 Explanation: 
The normal breathing rate for an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Question 29
The membrane that covers the heart is called:
A
Endocardium
B
Myocardium
C
Epicardium
D
Semicardium
Question 29 Explanation: 
The membrane that covers the heart is called epicardium.
Question 30
Please mark the chamber of the heart that pumps blood into the lungs:
A
Left ventricle
B
Left atrium
C
Right ventricle
D
Right atrium
Question 30 Explanation: 
The right ventricle pumps blood into the lungs.
Question 31
The chamber of the heart which receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins is:
A
The left ventricle
B
The left atrium
C
The right ventricle
D
The right atrium
Question 31 Explanation: 
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins.
Question 32
The chamber of the heart which receives blood from the body’s veins is:
A
The left ventricle
B
The left atrium
C
The right ventricle
D
The right atrium
Question 32 Explanation: 
The right atrium receives blood from the body’s veins.
Question 33
The chamber of the heart which pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body is:
A
The left ventricle
B
The left atrium
C
The right ventricle
D
The right atrium
Question 33 Explanation: 
The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body.
Question 34
Please mark the type of muscles which can be consciously controlled:
A
Voluntary
B
Involuntary
C
Cardiac
D
Smooth
Question 34 Explanation: 
Voluntary muscles can be contracted and relaxed consciously.
Question 35
Please mark the function(s) of the musculoskeletal system:
A
Providing body-shape
B
Protecting internal organs
C
Providing for movement
D
All of the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
The musculoskeletal system gives the body shape, protects the internal organs and provides for movement.
Question 36
The outermost skin-layer is called:
A
Dermis
B
epidermis
C
Subcutaneous layer
D
Sebaceous layer
Question 36 Explanation: 
The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin.
Question 37
Please mark the term which describes the ability of an organism or a cell to maintain internal equilibrium by adjusting its physiological processes:
A
Histocompatible
B
Homologous
C
Homeostasis
D
Homeopathic
Question 37 Explanation: 
Homeostasis is the ability of an organism or a cell to maintain internal equilibrium by adjusting its physiological processes.
Question 38
When performing an initial assessment, the patient's pulse can be characterized as:
A
Bounding or Calm
B
Weak or Strong
C
Irregular or Regular
D
B & C
Question 38 Explanation: 
When performing an initial assessment, the patient's pulse can be characterized as weak, strong, regular or irregular.
Question 39
Please mark the case in which a patient should be moved immediately:
A
When you can visualize no injuries to their neck or head.
B
When there is a fire or chance of fire.
C
At any time.
D
Never.
Question 39 Explanation: 
The patient should be immediately moved if there is an immediate danger, such as fire.
Question 40
What do proper mechanics when lifting a patient include:
A
Bending at the waist
B
Lift the patient by using your back.
C
Keeping the patient's weight as close to your body as possible
D
Using non-slip gloves
Question 40 Explanation: 
Proper mechanics when lifting a patient include keeping the patient's weight as close to your body as possible.
Question 41
The leaf-shaped structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called:
A
Larynx
B
Pharynx
C
Epiglottis
D
Uvula
Question 41 Explanation: 
The epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing.
Question 42
The structure that is encompassed by the soft palate above and the epiglottis below is called:
A
Pharynx
B
Nasopharynx
C
Larynx
D
Oropharynx
Question 42 Explanation: 
The oropharynx is encompassed by the soft palate above and the epiglottis below.
Question 43
Please mark the technique for airway opening of patients when no neck injury is suspected:
A
Jaw thrust
B
Head-tilt-chin-lift
C
Tongue-jaw lift
D
Heimlich maneuver
Question 43 Explanation: 
The proper way to open the airway of a patient is through a head-tilt-chin-lift.
Question 44
What should an EMT do if they hear a gurgling sound while administering artificial ventilation to a patient:
A
The EMT should transport the patient to the hospital.
B
The EMT should turn the patient on their left side.
C
The EMT should suction the patient.
D
The EMT should turn the patient on their left side.
Question 44 Explanation: 
In this case, the EMT should suction the patient immediately.
Question 45
How should one correct the error properly in case of an error while filling out a report?
A
You should use white-out to cover the error and write the correct information on top of the white- out.
B
You should draw a single line through the error, initial & date it then write in the correct information beside it.
C
You should scribble out the error so it is illegible, and then write in the correct information next to it.
D
You should start filling out a new report.
Question 45 Explanation: 
If you make an error while filling out a report, you should draw a single line through the error, initial & date it then write in the correct information beside it.
Question 46
Please mark the case when a patient should be given activated charcoal:
A
During a hypoglycemic episode.
B
After a grand mal seizure
C
If the patient has suffered 3rd-degree burns to their lower extremities.
D
If the patient has suffered poisoning following emesis or when emesis is contraindicated.
Question 46 Explanation: 
Activated charcoal should be given to a patient if they have suffered poisoning following emesis or when emesis is contraindicated.
Question 47
Please mark the case when a patient should be given epinephrine:
A
If the patient is hypertensive.
B
If the patient is hypoxic.
C
If the patient is suffering an acute allergic reaction.
D
If the patient is having a myocardial infarction.
Question 47 Explanation: 
Epinephrine should be given if the patient is suffering an acute allergic reaction.
Question 48
Please mark the class of medicine of aspirin:
A
Bronchodilator / anti-asthmatic
B
Narcotic analgesic / anti-emetic
C
Anti-psychotic / anti-depressant
D
Platelet inhibitor / anti-inflammatory
Question 48 Explanation: 
Aspirin is a platelet inhibitor/anti-inflammatory.
Question 49
Please mark the common cause of a compromised airway:
A
The tongue
B
Burns
C
Trauma
D
All of the above
Question 49 Explanation: 
The common causes of airway compromise include the tongue, foreign matter, trauma, burns, allergic reactions, and infection.
Question 50
Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma are:
A
Congenital defects
B
Obstructive lung diseases
C
Side effects of alcohol poisoning
D
Geriatric diseases
Question 50 Explanation: 
Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma are obstructive lung diseases.
Question 51
Capillaries are:
A
the connected arteries to veins.
B
found only in the hands and feet.
C
allow for the exchange of nutrients and waste at the cellular level.
D
All of the above
Question 51 Explanation: 
Capillaries allow for the exchange of nutrients and waste at the cellular level.
Question 52
Systolic blood pressure is:
A
the pressure exerted against the walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts.
B
the pressure exerted against the walls of arteries when the left ventricle is at rest.
C
the pressure exerted against the walls of veins when the left ventricle contracts.
D
the pressure exerted against the walls of veins when the left ventricle is at rest.
Question 52 Explanation: 
Systolic blood pressure is the pressure exerted against the wall of arteries when the left ventricle contracts.
Question 53
Please mark the location of the adrenal glands:
A
In the neck
B
In the occipital lobe
C
On top of the kidneys
D
Behind the liver
Question 53 Explanation: 
The adrenal glands are on the top of the kidneys.
Question 54
Please mark the organ(s) that secrete insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin:
A
The testes
B
The prostate
C
The kidneys
D
The pancreas
Question 54 Explanation: 
The pancreas secretes insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.
Question 55
Please mark the term which describes the substance secreted by an endocrine gland that has effects upon other glands or systems of the body:
A
Serum
B
Plasma
C
Hormone
D
Synovial fluid
Question 55 Explanation: 
The ubstance that is secreted by an endocrine gland that has effects upon other glands or systems of the body is a hormone.
Question 56
Please mark the location of the pituitary gland:
A
At the base of the brain
B
In the neck
C
Behind the liver
D
Next to the gallbladder
Question 56 Explanation: 
The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain.
Question 57
Please mark the score range of the Glasgow Coma Scale:
A
3 to 15
B
0 to 12
C
4 to 20
D
1 to 10
Question 57 Explanation: 
The Glascow Coma Scale determines a patient’s level of consciousness on a scale from 3 to 15.
Question 58
A patient who has unexpected blurred vision, difficulty in swallowing and trouble to speak is showing signs of:
A
Cardiac arrest
B
Grand mal seizure
C
Stroke
D
Alzheimer’s disease
Question 58 Explanation: 
A patient who has unexpected blurred vision, difficulty in swallowing and trouble to speak is showing signs of a stroke.
Question 59
Grand mal seizures are known as:
A
Absence
B
Tonic-Clonic
C
Myoclonic
D
West syndrome
Question 59 Explanation: 
Grand mal seizures are known as Tonic-Clonic seizures.
Question 60
Please mark the reason why carbon monoxide poisoning is called "the silent killer":
A
It is odorless
B
It is colorless
C
It is tasteless
D
All of the above
Question 60 Explanation: 
Carbon monoxide poisoning is called "the silent killer" because it is colorless, odorless, and tasteless.
Question 61
A patient who is complaining of hematemesis, dark stools, frequent diarrhea, and has orthostatic vital signs might be suffering from:
A
Esophageal cancer
B
Upper GI hemorrhage
C
Dysentery
D
Colon cancer
Question 61 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of haematemesis, dark stools, frequent diarrhea, and has orthostatic vital signs indicate that they are suffering from an upper GI hemorrhage.
Question 62
A patient who is complaining of progressive anorexia, abdominal bloating, diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, chills, and fever, might be suffering from:
A
Appendicitis
B
An abdominal aneurysm
C
Bowel obstruction
D
Inguinal hernia
Question 62 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of progressive anorexia, abdominal bloating, diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, chills, and fever, might be suffering from a bowel obstruction.
Question 63
A patient who is complaining of acute onset right lower quadrant pain beginning around the umbilicus and is also complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia might be suffering from:
A
Lower GI hemorrhage
B
An umbilical hernia
C
Pancreatitis
D
Appendicitis
Question 63 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of acute onset right lower quadrant pain beginning around the umbilicus and is also complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia might be suffering from appendicitis.
Question 64
A patient who is suffering from excruciating flank pain, difficulty urinating, hematuria, nausea, and vomiting might be suffering from:
A
Enlarged prostate
B
Kidney stones
C
Appendicitis
D
Stomach ulcer
Question 64 Explanation: 
A patient who is suffering from excruciating flank pain, difficulty urinating, hematuria, nausea, and vomiting might be suffering from kidney stones.
Question 65
A patient who is complaining of colicky pain in the right upper quadrant that gets worse after they eat and is unresolved by antacids might be suffering from:
A
Appendicitis
B
Pancreatitis
C
Cholecystitis
D
Gastritis
Question 65 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of colicky pain in the right upper quadrant that gets worse after they eat and is unresolved by antacids might be suffering from cholecystitis.
Question 66
Please mark the blood vessel which carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium:
A
Pulmonary vein
B
Pulmonary artery
C
Superior vena cava
D
Aorta
Question 66 Explanation: 
The pulmonary vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
Question 67
Please mark the major artery of the neck:
A
Brachial
B
Jugular
C
Carotid
D
Radial
Question 67 Explanation: 
The major artery of the neck is the carotid.
Question 68
Please mark the major artery of the thigh:
A
Brachial
B
Radial
C
Aorta
D
Femoral
Question 68 Explanation: 
The major artery of the thigh is the femoral artery.
Question 69
Please mark the medication that treats seizures:
A
Depakene
B
Seroquel
C
Mobic
D
Celebrex
Question 69 Explanation: 
Depakene is used to treat partial, absence, and generalized seizures.
Question 70
Difficulty breathing, anxiety, abnormal blood pressure, sudden onset of sweating, and squeezing, dull pressure to the chest are signs of:
A
Stroke
B
Hypoglycemia
C
Cardiac compromise
D
Panic attack
Question 70 Explanation: 
A patient with the abovementioned symptoms is facing a cardiac compromise.
Question 71
The state of profound depression of the vital processes of the body is called:
A
Death
B
Shock
C
Mania
D
Coma
Question 71 Explanation: 
The state of profound depression of the vital processes of the body is called shock.
Question 72
Please mark where the central pulses can be located:
A
Pedal, Brachial
B
Radial, Posterior tibial
C
Dorsalis pedis, Radial
D
Carotid, Femoral
Question 72 Explanation: 
The central pulses are located at the carotid or the femoral arteries.
Question 73
The American Heart Association recommends the compression-to-ventilation ratio for all single rescuers to be:
A
15:2
B
12:1
C
30:2
D
20:1
Question 73 Explanation: 
The American Heart Association recommends the compression-to-ventilation ratio for all single rescuers to be 30:2.
Question 74
Please mark the pathways for allergens to enter the body:
A
Ingestion
B
Absorption
C
Injection
D
All of the above
Question 74 Explanation: 
Ingestion through the stomach, absorption through the skin, injection by a bite, sting, needle, or infusion are all pathways for allergens.
Question 75
Please mark the question(s) that an EMT should ask a patient who has suffered poisoning or overdose:
A
What was the substance?
B
What is your age?
C
How much do you weigh?
D
Both A & C
Question 75 Explanation: 
A patient should be asked what was the substance, how much do they weigh, when did they ingest the substance or become exposed to the poison, how much did they ingest, how long did it take to ingest or how long were they exposed, have they already tried an intervention.
Question 76
Please mark the colloquial term for deliberately breathing in volatile substances to become intoxicated:
A
Chasing the dragon
B
Huffing
C
Smacking
D
Jonesing
Question 76 Explanation: 
Huffing is the colloquial term for deliberately inhaling in volatile substances in order to become intoxicated.
Question 77
What do long-term effects of abusing inhalants include?
A
Rashes around the nose and mouth
B
Night sweats
C
Liver damage
D
Upper respiratory problems
Question 77 Explanation: 
Long-term effects of abusing inhalants include liver damage.
Question 78
Please mark the name for implantation of a developing fetus outside of the uterus:
A
Placenta previa
B
Placental abruption
C
Ectopic pregnancy
D
Fetal expulsion
Question 78 Explanation: 
An ectopic pregnancy is the implantation of a developing fetus outside of the uterus.
Question 79
A patient who is complaining of lower abdominal pain, pain during movement, vaginal discharge, fever, and chills might be suffering from:
A
Spontaneous abortion
B
Ectopic pregnancy
C
Gonorrhea
D
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Question 79 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of lower abdominal pain, pain during movement, vaginal discharge, fever, and chills might be suffering from a pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 80
A patient who is complaining of  frequent urination, burning pain with ejaculation, occasional pain with defecation, fever, chills, nausea, and vomiting might be suffering from:
A
Venereal Disease
B
Prostatitis
C
Benign Prostate Hypertrophy
D
Diverticulitis
Question 80 Explanation: 
A patient who is complaining of frequent urination, burning pain with ejaculation, occasional pain with defecation, fever, chills, nausea, and vomiting might be suffering from prostatitis.
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